广东省珠海市2021届高三上学期摸底考试英语试题 Word版含答案

广东省珠海市2021届高三上学期摸底考试英语试题 Word版含答案

珠海市2020-2021学年度第一学期高三摸底测试 英 语 ‎2020.9‎ 本试卷满分130分，考试用时120分钟 注意事项：‎ ‎1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名和考生号、试室号、座位号填写在答题卡上。‎ ‎2. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。‎ ‎3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再填写新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。‎ ‎4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将答题卡交回。‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。‎ A Because of the spread of COVID-19, many students are forced to study at home. But parents are worried about how their children can learn more efficiently. The following websites might give you a clue.‎ Scratch With Scratch, you can program your own interactive stories, games, and animations — and share your creations with others in the online community. Scratch can be downloaded free of charge. Scratch is designed especially for ages 8 to 16, but is used by people of all ages. Scratch is used in more than 150 different countries and available in more than 40 languages.‎ Mr. Bob Mr. Bob is a science teacher, author, maker, and presenter that knows how to share the world of science. Bob encourages parents and teachers to practice Random Acts of Science by providing instructions and videos for interactive science experiments on his website. Bob has also coauthored a very popular series of science adventure books for kids.‎ Oxford Owl for School Oxford Owl for School is home to online teaching, learning and assessment resources and expert support for primary schools. Free teaching, learning and assessment resources are provided, including book recommendations, storytelling videos, activity sheets and teaching notes. With a library of free, tablet-friendly eBooks, you’ll find the perfect eBook for every pupil.‎ The National Geographic Society The National Geographic Society is a global nonprofit organization to explore and protect our planet. We fund hundreds of research and conservation projects around the world each year and inspire new generations. Our yellow border serves to explore the farthest reaches of the Earth and beyond. We reach millions of people around the world, with our television networks in 172 countries and our publications available in 41 langauges.‎ ‎21. Which website is most suitable for science lovers?‎ A. Scratch.‎ B. Mr. Bob.‎ C. Oxford Owl for School.‎ D. The National Geographic Society.‎ ‎22. What is special about Oxford Owl for School?‎ A. It owns a library in America.‎ B. It offers materials for students only.‎ C. It provides online books for free.‎ D. It is suitable for students of all ages.‎ ‎23. What do Scratch and the National Geographic Society have in common?‎ A. They have users worldwide.‎ B. They choose books for kids to read.‎ C. They are designed especially for kids.‎ D. They are both nonprofit organizations.‎ B I am proud to be a member of two cultures. Even though I am only ten years old, I have lived in two countries and in two cultures. I have lived in both Mexico and the United States.‎ I was born in the state of Michoacán. I was born in a small town called Quinceo. Life there was simple and peaceful. There was a small market where we would go on Sundays. There was a corral where we would go and watch rodeos. After school, my friends and I would go for a swim in a creek. My mom did not work; she stayed at home taking care of our family. Life in Quinceo was nice, but money was sometimes not enough to support us.‎ In 1996, the day came when my dad decided to bring us to the United States. Leaving my town was hard, but it was important that my family stay together. When I left Mexico, I had a lot of special friends and nice teachers.‎ When I first came to the United States, I started at a new school in Chicago. I found care and company at the school, among Hispanic people, my friends, and my teacher. She helped me all the time.‎ My education now is different from the one in Mexico. Here, I am studying in two languages. I feel very happy because I am able to communicate in two languages. In my case, speaking Spanish is an indication of my Mexican heritage. Speaking English is a symbol of my triumph and the struggles that I have as an immigrant in this country. Now that I have been here three years, I am proud to offer my help and support to people who need it.‎ I urge those who come from Mexico and other countries to learn English and to continue speaking their native language, too. It will help them reach out to others.‎ ‎24. What does the writer think of Mexico?‎ A. She doesn’t like it because it’s poor.‎ B. She was too young to remember it.‎ C. She loves the country and is proud of it.‎ D. She wants to get rid of it so she left.‎ ‎25. Why did the family move to the US?‎ A. Because they were in need of more money.‎ B. Because the mother found no peace in Quinceo.‎ C. Because they wanted to experience a new culture.‎ D. Because the author could have new friends.‎ ‎26. Which of the following statements about the author is WRONG?‎ A. She wants to be a teacher and support people.‎ B. She enjoyed company of friends at the new school.‎ C. She enjoyed life in Mexico and also in the USA.‎ D. Her new school teaches in English and Mexican.‎ ‎27. The purpose of the passage is to ________.‎ A. explain how the author learns English well as a teen B. help people to understand American immigrants better C. introduce the life in her hometown Quinceo in Mexico D. persuade immigrants not to drop their mother tongue C In our youth-obsessed culture, one would assume that your self-esteem peaks in your 20s—but that’s not the case. Researchers from the University of Bern set out to determine when the average person’s self-esteem is the highest, and the good news is that your peak comes decades later.‎ Researchers found that self-esteem increases throughout one’s lifetime, with a slight plateau during those awkward teen years. Our self-esteem levels then start rising again and don’t peak until well into midlife. The highest point for self-esteem level happened at age 60 when they can retire and stayed there until a slight decline in one’s 70s and 80s.‎ This news that our self-esteem will continue to rise or stay steady during the majority of our lives is exciting. We often hear of increased stress in the decades of midlife, but there are upsides too. “Midlife is, for many adults, a time of high stability in relationships and work. Moreover, most people further invest in their roles, which might promote their self-esteem,” researcher Dr. Orth told the journalist. “For example, people take on managerial roles at work, maintain a satisfying relationship with their spouse or partner, and help their children become responsible and independent.”‎ As we age and our roles tend to change, it’s natural for self-esteem to take a small hit. “Old age frequently involves loss of social roles as a result of retirement, the empty nest, and, possibly, widowhood. In addition, aging often leads to negative changes in other possible sources of self-esteem, such as socioeconomic status and health.” Dr. Orth said. However, it’s important to remember that it’s only a slight decrease. Dr. Orth believes that most people maintain a high self-esteem level even into their 90s and beyond.‎ ‎28. Which of the following is the closest in meaning to “peak”?‎ A. Minimum. B. Maximum. C. Average. D. Height.‎ ‎29. Who is more likely to have the highest self-esteem level?‎ A. A newly-retired person. B. A teenage boy.‎ C. A person in his/her 80s. D. A middle-aged person.‎ ‎30. What does Dr. Orth think of the decrease in self-esteem for the old people?‎ A. It is destructive. B. It is unnatural.‎ C. It is important. D. It is acceptable.‎ ‎31. Where is the text most likely from?‎ A. A travel guide. B. A science report.‎ C. A novel. D. A business magazine.‎ D The start of the U.S. Atlantic hurricane season is just over two weeks away and forecasters are expecting particularly high activity this year. With warmer than usual conditions expected in the North Atlantic this summer, meteorologists have predicted that the season could produce eight or more hurricanes.‎ While forecasters cannot predict how many hurricanes — if any — will make landfall, the potential for dangerous storms to strike the southern and eastern coasts brings an additional problem for authorities already struggling with the COVID-19.‎ Experts say that the COVID-19 is affecting the capabilities of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) and other organizations involved in responding to natural disasters.‎ Retired U.S. Army Lieutenant General Jeffrey Talley, who now leads global efforts on disaster management at IBM’s Center for the Business of Government, said that with FEMA and other authorities engaged with responding to the COVID-19, resources will be limited if a hurricane strikes.‎ ‎“When we look at a disaster... I think of it in terms of how we prepare for, respond to and recover from those types of events,” Talley said. “Right now we’re in the middle of the response of COVID-19. None of us are really sure how long it’s going to last and how the response to disasters is going to be different, say, two months from now, six months from now, so on and so forth,” he said.‎ According to Talley, the COVID-19 could complicate the response to a hurricane by interrupting the flow of emergency supplies to areas where they are urgently needed at crucial moments.‎ Social distancing and stay-at-home orders will also force authorities along the south and east coast to rethink how they manage people who must leave their homes in the event of a disaster. While many states are already lifting some lockdown restrictions, social distancing will still be important for many months to come.‎ ‎32. When will the first hurricane possibly arrive in US this summer?‎ A. In about eight days. B. In about six months.‎ C. In about two months. D. In more than two weeks.‎ ‎33. According to Talley, how could COVID-19 influence the response to a hurricane?‎ A. More people will leave home to fight against a hurricane.‎ B. Rescue materials might not reach disaster areas sometimes.‎ C. Lockdown can greatly reduce damage and injury.‎ D. The pandemic makes it harder to predict hurricanes.‎ ‎34. What can we infer from the last paragraph?‎ A. People throughout the country no longer need to stay at home.‎ B. The state governments are confident about tackling hurricanes.‎ C. Authorities along the coasts will stick to the former orders.‎ D. It is necessary to keep social distance in the coming months.‎ ‎35. What is the best title for the text?‎ A. More Destructive Hurricanes to Be Expected.‎ B. More Difficult to Forecast Hurricanes Coming.‎ C. COVID-19 to Worsen Hurricane Response.‎ D. Social Distancing Needed in Coming Months.‎ 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Do you often go out for shopping? How to avoid germs when shopping in the grocery store? 36 .‎ Firstly, go to the grocery store bright and early when they’re just opening. This might be your best option. By avoiding large groups of people, 37 , as the virus is mainly spread through close contact with other people.‎ One of the easiest ways to spread the virus is by touching a contaminated surface and then touching your face, eyes, nose, or mouth. 38 . This is a lot harder than it sounds, because people touch their faces more than 20 times in a single hour. While a mask can help prevent you from touching your mouth and nose, it is strongly recommended to wear one.‎ ‎ 39 . This may be as simple as avoiding a crowded aisle and circling back a few minutes later. Since other shoppers might not be as mindful as you are about maintaining social distance, be polite in your request that they keep their distance with a polite “excuse me.”‎ Just as you’re being thoughtful about your own health, be thoughtful about the health of others, suggests Dr. Larkin. “ 40 , see if you can shop for them or teach them to use an online and delivery option,” she says. “Be patient and kind with one another, especially the workers keeping the stores open and functioning—and of course, if you are ill, please stay home and don’t expose others.”‎ A. you decrease your risk of becoming infected B. If you have an elderly neighbor who needs help C. you had better stay at home instead of going out D. As a result, avoid touching your face while shopping E. As a result, you should wear a mask when you go shopping F. Moreover, try to maintain a safe, six-foot distance from other shoppers G. Before you head out to one, you need some guidelines to ensure your safety 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ For decades, humans have torn up the natural landscape in Asia, cutting down trees to build resorts (旅游胜地) in the most beautiful locations and caging wild animals to attract tourists.‎ Bangkok-based hotel architect Bill Bensley is saying “ 41 .”‎ When a businessman talked with him about 42 a resort that included a zoo in Asia, he came up with a (n) 43 : let’s 44 the humans and let the rare and endangered 45 wander free.‎ Sounds 46 ? Bensley is known for 47 ideas, so much so that he’s been called the “Willy Wonka of hotel design.”‎ At his Shinta Mani Wild resort in Cambodia 48 arrive via a 380-meter zip wire (高空滑索) over the wilderness of the South Cardamom National Park and are 49 to join Wildlife Alliance anti-poaching patrols (防盗猎巡逻).‎ But he’s not doing things 50 for eye-catching. Bensley is a lifelong conservationist who deeply 51 what humans are doing to the planet. That’s why he wanted to do the World Wild Project. 61-year-old Bensley says the first stage of the eight-year project, which will 52 several different top branded hotels, is expected to 53 in 2023.‎ The cages for 54 will actually be 2,400 hotel rooms, with a budget of generally a million 55 per room. Let’s just say the guests won’t be uncomfortable.‎ ‎ 56 , it’s not the rooms the California-native is talking about. Having a 57 with a local official, he has got the permission to relocate abused animals from 58 in Asia, and set them free onto the 59 2,000-hectare piece of land 60 the human zoo will be located.‎ ‎41. A. no more B. no way C. no wonder D. no doubt ‎42. A. visiting B. possessing C. designing D. rebuilding ‎43. A. zoo B. idea C. resort D. project ‎44. A. kill B. approach C. find D. cage ‎45. A. people B. birds C. plants D. animals ‎46. A. crazy B. fantastic C. impossible D. vivid ‎47. A. simple B. unusual C. absurd D. ordinary ‎48. A. designers B. researchers C. animals D. guests ‎49. A. required B. commanded C. invited D. forced ‎50. A. rarely B. simply C. hardly D. nearly ‎51. A. cares about B. thinks about C. sets about D. brings about ‎52. A. approve of B. hear of C. think of D. consist of ‎53. A. open B. close C. appear D. pause ‎54. A. animals B. designers C. humans D. officials ‎55. A. meters B. dollars C. kilograms D. acres ‎56. A. Therefore B. Besides C. However D. Thus ‎57. A. fighting B. meeting C. travelling D. speaking ‎58. A. farms B. resorts C. hotels D. zoos ‎59. A. approximately B. certainly C. terribly D. narrowly ‎60. A. which B. when C. where D. that 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ Li Ziqi, 61 lives in a village in Sichuan Province, is famous for her 62 (attract) videos of rural self-sufficiency (自给自足). Her video channel consists of beautiful process videos that show how she plants crops and harvests from her garden and the nearby forest before 63 (cook) delicious food in her outdoor kitchen.‎ For a worldwide audience in the pandemic, her beautiful D.I.Y videos have become 64 reliable source of escape and comfort. In her videos, she tends 65 (work) in silence and plays soothing music.‎ She is not known 66 taking shortcuts. Her way of cooking suggests that every delicious dish takes 67 (pain) to prepare. For example in a 12-minute video, she, at first, pushed garlic parts into the farm land outside her home; in the next few minutes, with the sprouts growing, they reached up towards the sky when she 68 (begin) to cook. Such a video is 69 (certain) a way to step out of the extremely high pressure society that we live in.‎ Her videos are beyond materialistic ways to explain the nation or culture. Therefore, she 70 (have) already become a major celebrity on the internet, inspiring people to return to their roots.‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有5处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎2. 只允许修改5处，多者（从第6处起）不计分。‎ Dear Dr. Wong,‎ How are you doing? I’m Lisa and I’m writing to express our thanks to you on the behalf of the Student Union.‎ As one of the judges of the speech contest, you listened to everyone’s speech careful. Not only did you point out their strengths and weaknesses, but you also give them good suggestion and sincere encouragement. Besides, we learned many speech skills you. All in all, we are very grateful to you.‎ Yours,‎ Lisa 第二节 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）‎ 你校正在组织英语作文比赛。请以我最喜爱的一本书为题，写一篇短文参赛，内容包括：‎ ‎1. 该书简介；‎ ‎2. 喜爱的原因。‎ 注意：‎ ‎1. 词数100左右；‎ ‎2. 短文题目已为你写好。‎ My Favourite Book ‎____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ 第三节 读后续写（共1小题；满分20分）‎ 阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。‎ Every Dog Has Its Day Roscoe was a big, ugly bulldog. He wasn’t very smart, but he had a good heart. Roscoe’s owner left him ‎ chained up outside each day when he went to work. Roscoe liked being outside. He was always nice to everyone. He didn’t even bother the rat that lived in a nearby hole.‎ A group of boys often passed Roscoe on their way to and from school. One day, one of the boys had a candy bar in his hand as he walked by. Roscoe jumped up when he smelled that candy bar. He tried to run over to the boy, but his chain stopped him short. The boys all laughed when they saw Roscoe pulling on his chain. The boy with the candy bar held it in front of Roscoe’s nose. He kept it just out of reach to tease him. All the boys laughed as Roscoe tried to reach the candy bar but couldn’t.‎ From then on, those boys never passed Roscoe without doing something mean to him. Poor Roscoe was having a hard time and felt scared. The rat that lived in the alley had been watching. She understood that people were sometimes mean to animals for no good reason. She didn’t think it was nice. She decided to help Roscoe.‎ When Roscoe went to sleep for his afternoon nap, she quietly sneaked over to him. She began chewing on Roscoe’s leather collar around his neck which the chain was connected to. She had chewed through more than half of it when she heard out voices down the alley.‎ The rat raced back into her hole and saw that the boys were coming. Roscoe was awake now. When the boys saw him, they laughed and started throwing sticks at him. Roscoe was hit and he barked angrily at the boys with all his strength. This time when he got to the end of his chain, his collar broke off. He was free.‎ 注意：‎ ‎1. 所续写短文的词数应为75左右；‎ ‎2. 至少使用3个短文中标有下划线的关键词语；‎ ‎3. 续写部分为一段，开头语已为你写好；‎ ‎4. 续写完成后，请用下划线明确标出你所使用的关键词语。‎ Paragraph 2:‎ The boys ran off as fast as they could, but one of them slipped and fell. _______________________________‎ ‎________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ 珠海市2020—2021学年度第一学期高三摸底测试英语科参考答案 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节；每小题2分，满分40分）‎ ‎21-23 BCA 24-27 CAAD 28-31 BADB 32-35 DBDC 36-40 GADFB 第三部分 第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎41-45 ACBDD 46-50 ABDCB 51-55 ADACB 56-60 CBDAC 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ ‎61. who 62. attractive 63. cooking 64. a 65. to work:‎ ‎66. for 67. pains 68. began 69. certainly 70. has 第四部分 第一节 短文改错（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）‎ Dear Dr. Wong,‎ How are you doing? I’m Lisa and I’m writing to express our thanks to you on the behalf of the Student Union.‎ ‎ 删除the As one of the judges of the speech contest, you listened to everyone’s speech careful. Not only did you point ‎ carefully out their strengths and weaknesses, but you also give them good suggestion and sincere encouragement. Besides,‎ ‎ gave suggestions we learned many speech skills ∧ you. All in all, we are very grateful to you.‎ ‎ from Yours,‎ Lisa 第二节 书面表达（满分20分）‎ One possible version:‎ My Favourite Book Of all the books I have read, I love A Dream of the Red Mansions most.‎ It is my favorite not because it was written by Cao Xueqin, a famous novelist in Qing Dynasty. Rather, I deeply value the book and have read it over 10 times, firstly, for the moving love story between Jia Baoyu and Lin Daiyu. Besides, if given enough patience and devotion, the novel will also reveal the rise and decline of a famous royal family to its readers. What I also enjoy about the book is its language and writing style of Cao Xueqin, which had a profound effect on the writers of his times and later generations.‎ All in all, A Dream of the Red Mansions has won my heart and I am convinced that it deserves yours too.‎ 书面表达作文评分标准 ‎1 本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分；‎ ‎2 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分；‎ ‎3 词数少于70和多于120的，从总分中减去2分；‎ ‎4 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性；‎ ‎5 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写汉词汇用法均可接受；‎ ‎6 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。‎ 内容要点：‎ 写信目的（介绍、分享一本好书）；‎ 该书简介（作者、书籍的主要内容、观点梗概等，可适当增加细节）；‎ 喜爱的原因（例如：书籍的主题、写作风格、语言特色或给个人的启发与改变等）；‎ 各档次的给分范围和要求 Ⅰ. 第五档（很好）；（17—20分）：‎ ‎（1）完全完成了试题规定的任务；‎ ‎（2）覆盖所有内容要点；‎ ‎（3）应用了较多的语法结构和词汇；‎ ‎（4）语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力；‎ ‎（5）有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。‎ ‎（6）完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ Ⅱ. 第四档（好）：（13—16分）‎ ‎（1）完全完成了试题规定的任务 ‎（2）虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；‎ ‎（3）应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；‎ ‎（4）语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致；‎ ‎（5）应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。‎ ‎（6）达到了预期的写作目的。‎ Ⅲ. 第三档（适当）：（9—12分）‎ ‎（1）基本完成了试题规定的任务；‎ ‎（2）漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容；‎ ‎（3）应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；‎ ‎（4）有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；‎ ‎（5）应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。‎ ‎（6）整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ Ⅳ. 第二档（较差）：（5—8分）‎ ‎（1）未恰当完成试题规定的任务；‎ ‎（2）漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；‎ ‎（3）语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；‎ ‎（4）有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；‎ ‎（5）较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。‎ ‎（6）信息未能清楚地传达给读者。‎ Ⅴ. 第一档（差）：（1—4分）‎ ‎（1）未完成试题规定的任务；‎ ‎（2）明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求；‎ ‎（3）语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；‎ ‎（4）较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解；‎ ‎（5）缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。‎ ‎（6）信息未能传达给读者。‎ Ⅵ. 不得分：（0分）‎ ‎（1）只能写出与内容相关的词语，没有有效信息；‎ ‎（2）内容太少，无法评判；‎ ‎（3）写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。‎ 第三节 读后续写（满分20分）‎ One possible version:‎ The boys ran off as fast as they could, but one of them slipped and fell. Before he could get up again, Roscoe was there. Thinking of all the mean things he and other boys had done, the boy was so frightened of Roscoe’s revenge that he started crying and begged for mercy. When Roscoe saw how scared the boy was, he came up and gently licked his hand. That boy was grateful for Roscoe and he promised not to bother again. Every dog has its day, and that day was definitely Roscoe’s. It was a pretty good day for the rat, too.‎ 读后续写评分标准 一、评分原则 ‎1 本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分；‎ ‎2 评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分；‎ ‎3 词数少于70的，从总分中减去2分；‎ ‎4 评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：‎ ‎（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；‎ ‎（2）内容的丰富性和对所标出关键词语的应用情况；‎ ‎（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；‎ ‎（4）上下文的连贯性；‎ ‎5 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。‎ 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 描述 第五档 ‎17—20分 ‎—与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供段落开头语衔接合理；‎ ‎—内容丰富，应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语；‎ ‎—所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；‎ ‎—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。‎ 第四档 ‎13—16分 ‎—与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供段落开头语衔接较为合理；‎ ‎—内容比较丰富，应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语；‎ ‎—所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达；‎ ‎—比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。‎ 第三档 ‎9—12分 ‎—与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；‎ ‎—写出了若干有关内容，应用了2个以上短文中标出的关键词语；‎ ‎—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义的表达；‎ ‎—使用了简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。‎ 第二档 ‎5—8分 ‎—与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；‎ ‎—写出了一些有关内容，应用了1个以上短文中标出的关键词语；‎ ‎—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达；‎ ‎—较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。‎ 第一档 ‎1—4分 ‎—与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差；‎ ‎—产出内容太少，很少或没有使用短文中标出的关键词语；‎ ‎—语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达；‎ ‎—缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。‎ ‎0分 ‎—白卷、内容太少无法判断或所写内容与所提供内容无关。‎