英语卷·2018届浙江省名校协作体高二下学期开学考试（2017-02）

英语卷·2018届浙江省名校协作体高二下学期开学考试（2017-02）

‎2016学年第二学期浙江省名校协作体试题 高二年级英语学科 第Ⅰ卷 ‎ 考生须知：‎ ‎1.本卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。‎ ‎2.答题前，在答题卷指定区域填写班级、姓名、试场号、座位号及准考证号。‎ ‎3.所有答案必须写在答题卷上，写在试卷上无效。‎ ‎4.考试结束后，只需上交答题卷。‎ 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ ‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ 例如：How much is the shirt?‎ ‎ A. £ 19.15. B. £ 9.18. C. £ 9.15. ‎ 答案是: C。‎ ‎1. Who lost a French dictionary?‎ ‎ A. Mike. B. Bill. C. Tom.‎ ‎2. How will the man probably go to Chicago?‎ ‎ A. By car. B. By plane. C. By bus.‎ ‎3. Why was the man late?‎ ‎ A. His alarm clock didn’t work.‎ ‎ B. He didn’t hear the alarm.‎ ‎ C. He forgot to set the alarm clock.‎ ‎4. Where does the conversation probably take place?‎ ‎ A. In a library. B. In a bookstore. C. In a supermarket.‎ ‎5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?‎ ‎ A. How to look after Ken. ‎ ‎ B. How to spend the vacation. ‎ ‎ C. How to deal with the woman’s cat.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听下面一段（第6段）对话，回答第6和第7题。‎ ‎6. How do we know about the woman’s grandfather?‎ ‎ A. He has white hair. B. He works in a company now. C. He wears glasses.‎ ‎7. How old is the woman’s grandmother?‎ ‎ A. 60. B. 65. C. 70.‎ ‎ ‎ 听下面一段（第7段）对话，回答第8和第9题。‎ ‎8. Where is the work place of the company?‎ ‎ A. In Britain. B. In America. C. In Australia.‎ ‎9. How will the woman help the man?‎ ‎ A. She will print his application letter.‎ ‎ B. She will check his application letter.‎ ‎ C. She will write a new application letter for him.‎ 听下面一段（第8段）对话，回答第10至第12题。‎ ‎10.Why does the man prefer cycling?‎ ‎ A. It is quiet and relaxing. ‎ ‎ B. He can do it with his friends. ‎ ‎ C. He is fond of seeing the countryside.‎ ‎11. Which two sports does the man like best?‎ ‎ A. Football and cycling.‎ ‎ B. Swimming and football.‎ ‎ C. Table tennis and swimming.‎ ‎12. When does the man usually play table tennis?‎ ‎ A. In winter. B. In spring. C. In summer.‎ 听下面一段（第9段）对话，回答第13至第16题。‎ ‎13. What is the woman?‎ ‎ A. A doctor. B. A professor. C. A nutritionist.‎ ‎14. What does the woman suggest the man eat?‎ ‎ A. Fruits and vegetables. B. Processed food. C. Pork.‎ ‎15. Where does the woman suggest the man eat?‎ ‎ A. At the university hospital. B. At the restaurant. C. At the dining hall.‎ ‎16. How does the man probably feel after talking with the woman?‎ ‎ A. Worried. B. Relaxed. C. Confused.‎ 听下面一段（第10段）独白，回答第17至第20题。‎ ‎17. What is Ellen’s problem?‎ ‎ A. She can’t respond to sounds. ‎ ‎ B. She can’t speak very well.‎ ‎ C. She can’t hear very well.‎ ‎18. What did Ellen tell the speaker when she came home?‎ ‎ A. She had a good coach.‎ ‎ B. She took part in the sports meeting.‎ ‎ C. She was encouraged by her friends.‎ ‎19. Why did the speaker try to encourage Ellen?‎ ‎ A. He thought it unlikely that she won. ‎ ‎ B. Her coach didn’t encourage her. ‎ ‎ C. Ellen couldn’t run very fast.‎ ‎20. How did Ellen perform in the sports meeting?‎ ‎ A. She won two races. ‎ ‎ B. She was faced with defeat. ‎ ‎ C. She won almost all the races.‎ 第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节（共10个小题；每小题2.5分，满分25分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ A Most of us have lost our wallet at some stage in our lives. But few would imagine having it returned after a nearly seven-decade gap. Edward Parker dropped his wallet in 1950 into an inaccessible spot behind a bookshelf, while working as an electrician, repairing World War Two bomb damage in the palace. The wallet stayed there until this year when a builder, doing some restoration work, finally found it.‎ ‎ The wallet is a time capsule. Its leather and webbing has long ago started to disintegrate. But it contains numerous pictures of family, invoices, receipts, old union cards, results of a chest X-ray (sent to him in 1948, the same year as the NHS was founded), a national service card dated 9 December 1944 and a medical insurance card. His business cards—E Parker, Electrical Contractor—seem almost original. Reflecting the typical methods of contact of the time, they have an address but no telephone number.‎ ‎ A month ago I was speaking a press officer Lambeth Palace and he mentioned that the wallet had just been handed in. We thought it might be nice to try and work out whose it was and give it back to the family. Edward Parker is a pretty common name, but his medical card contained two places of residence—Poets Road and Springdale Road in north London. From this, Islington Council were able to find details of a marriage between Edward Parker and Constance Butler in 1947.‎ ‎ That information was enough to work out that he was still alive and in a ‎ care home in Essex, so I went to visit him. Now 89, Edward has dementia (痴呆), but he was clearly happy to get the wallet and in particular, the photographs back. He pointed out pictures of his mother and father, his brother, his cousins and his wife Constance, who was with him when I visited. He hadn't seen a picture of his father since he lost the wallet, Constance, 90, says. ‎ ‎21. It can be inferred that Edward Parker ___________.‎ ‎ A. always lost his wallet B. once participated in World War II ‎ C. once worked as a builder D. once worked as electrical technician ‎22. What’s the main idea of the second paragraph?‎ ‎ A. The producer of the wallet. B. The raw material of the wallet.‎ ‎ C. The concrete contents of the wallet. D. The high-quality shape of the wallet.‎ ‎23. What does the underlined word “disintegrate” in the second paragraph mean?‎ ‎ A. Maintain. B. Damage. C. Disappear. D. Destroy.‎ ‎24. What plays key role in returning the wallet?‎ ‎ A. Medical card. B. Business card. ‎ C. Old union card. D. National service card. ‎ B Cui Yutao Yuxueyuan, a popular Chinese child-training app, and baby diaper(尿布)brand Pampers recently released in Beijing a White Paper on the Sleep Quality of Chinese Babies, which is the first of its kind in China based on big data analysis through research the app hosted and a survey involving nearly 10,000 respondents.‎ According to the White Paper, more than 75 percent of Chinese parents have babies who do not sleep well at night, and babies aged between 6 to 12 months in particular have restless nights and wake up multiple times at night. ‎ ‎ It also says that less than 6 percent of parents know why their babies do not enjoy a deep sleep at night, and 23 percent of parents do not have the ‎ slightest idea of the reasons.‎ ‎ Babies cuddled or nursed to sleep wake up more frequently in the middle of the night; waking up babies to nurse them or change diapers also greatly affects their sleep quality. ‎ Data also showed that parents who do not think their babies sleep well are more likely to interrupt the babies’ sleep, according to the White Paper. ‎ ‎ Cui Yutao Yuxueyuan and Pampers also announced a strategic partnership and released the “Five Foolproof Tips” for Chinese parents to help their babies sleep through the night for better growth, which ask parents not to cuddle or nurse the babies to sleep, have the babies sleep in their own beds, not to pick up babies who wake up in the middle of the night immediately, and not to wake the babies up from deep sleep to feed them.‎ ‎25. What is special about the White Paper?‎ ‎ A. It is the first report on giving professional suggestions.‎ ‎ B. It deals with the Sleep Quality of Chinese Babies with an app.‎ ‎ C. It has the largest number of participants in the research.‎ ‎ D. It is the first paper on the Sleep Quality of Chinese Babies with large data.‎ ‎26. Which of the following statement is NOT included in the paper?‎ ‎ A. Most parents do not know why their babies fail to enjoy a deep sleep at night.‎ ‎ B. Nursing babies like changing diapers will affect their sleep quality seriously. ‎ ‎ C. Helping babies sleep through the night ensures their better growth.‎ ‎ D. Babies between 6 to 12 months seem to be poorer in the quality of sleep.‎ ‎27. This passage is mainly about ________.‎ A. “Five Foolproof Tips” for your better sleep B. Chinese parents facing the problem of poor sleep C. a White Paper for the better sleep of Chinese babies ‎ D. Cui Yutao Yuxueyuan and Pampers working together C ‎ Babies should be given peanut early—some at four months old—in order to reduce the risk of allergy (过敏), according to new US guidance.‎ ‎ Studies have shown the risk of peanut allergy can be cut by more than 80% by early exposure. The National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases said the new guidance was “an important step forward”.‎ ‎ However, young children should not eat whole peanuts, because of the risk of choking.‎ ‎ Allergy levels are rising in the US and have multiplied more than four times since 2008. It is a pattern repeated across much of the Western world as well as parts of Asia and Africa. Parents are often cautious about introducing peanut and in the past have been advised to wait until the child is three years old.‎ ‎ According to the new guidelines, children with other allergies or severe eczema should start on peanut-containing foods at between four and six months old, with medical supervision. Babies with mild eczema should have peanut-containing food at about six months old. Those with no eczema or allergies can have peanut-containing food freely introduced.‎ ‎ Dr. Anthony Fauci, the director of the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, said: “We expect that the widespread guidelines by healthcare providers will prevent the development of peanut allergy in many susceptible(易受......影响的)children and eventually reduce the occurrence of peanut allergy in the United States.”‎ ‎ Michael Walker, a member of the European Academy of Allergy and Clinical Immunology, said: “The guidelines are based on sound medical research carried out in the UK. UK parents should consult their family doctor, bringing attention to the guidelines if necessary, before attempting peanut allergy prevention in their babies themselves.”‎ ‎ Prof. Alan Boobis, from Imperial College London, said: “The previous view that delaying the introduction of allergenic foods decreases the risk of food allergy is incorrect and… if anything, the exclusion (除去) or delayed ‎ introduction of specific allergenic foods may increase the risk of allergy to the same foods, including peanut.”‎ ‎28. What of the following may the new US guidance agree with?‎ ‎ A. Children can have peanut-containing food freely. ‎ ‎ B. Early exposure to peanut can reduce peanut allergy.‎ ‎ C. In case of allergy, young children should not eat whole peanut.‎ ‎ D. Parents should wait until kids grow to three to feed them peanut. ‎ ‎29. What can we learn from Michael Walker?‎ ‎ A. The guidelines are scientific and thus reliable.‎ ‎ B. The use of the guidelines should be restricted in the UK. ‎ ‎ C. Parents should do peanut allergy prevention themselves. ‎ ‎ D. Many doctors in the UK don’t agree with the guidelines. ‎ ‎30. What might be the author’s purpose of writing this passage? ‎ ‎ A. To criticize delaying the introduction of allergenic foods. ‎ B. To warn parents of the potential danger peanut may bring.‎ ‎ C. To introduce a new way of reducing the risk of peanut allergy.‎ ‎ D. To compare two pieces of scientific research on peanut allergy.‎ 第二节（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ ‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ ‎ How strong are you?‎ That is a tough question to answer, whether you are a man or a woman. But, I want to ask… how do you define your strength? 31 When push comes, we often discover that we are much stronger than we think.‎ What is Strength?‎ Strength is not always about pure physical strength. 32 It is about the capacity to get things done. I know some people who are intellectually strong, but they get very little done in their jobs. And I know others who find work challenging, but they make it by sheer drive (强大的动力) and hard work. They possess inner ‎ strength.‎ Self-Imposed Limits What I have observed is that most people set their own limits. They limit their output based on self-framed constraints (自我设定的限制) of their capabilities and strengths. Sometimes these boundaries (边界) are based on past experiences. Sometimes they are based on self-imagined capacities.‎ ‎ 33 ‎ So, how do we break through these limits? How do we get stronger?‎ Pushing It If you want to be stronger, you have to push your boundaries. Pushing it is what it takes to increase your limits. In the gym, bodybuilders discovered this long ago. 34 ‎ Want to test your limits? Push yourself. Test your self-perceived constraints to see how accurate they are. Make sure your goals are slightly beyond what you think can be achieved.‎ You Are Stronger Than You Think Most people underestimate(低估) their strength. 35 Test your limits. Push yourself, to find your true boundaries and define your strength.‎ When you discover how much you’ve really got, you may surprise even yourself.‎ A. Rather, it is about willpower.‎ B. How do you know your limits?‎ C. Sometimes these limits are based on nothing.‎ D. How can we train our mind and make it stronger?‎ E. As you go through your day, challenge your capacity.‎ F. The same principle is true when it comes to inner strength. ‎ G. Strength is a combination of physical and mental capability. ‎ 第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节：完形填空（共20个小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ ‎ Yesterday I celebrated my 60th birthday. And we also celebrated the completion of my new book, A House of My Own, a collection of personal stories. And what a wonderful birthday it was! ‎ ‎ The best 36 ! I hope I feel that way about every birthday from now on. I know I aimed to 37 myself this time around, and that made for a joyful 38 .‎ ‎ The 39 for my birthday was pastry (酥皮糕点). Guests were 40 to come in costume! I did this because I wanted my 41 to be allowed to play, and costumes help people remember their inner kid. As for the pastry theme, that was because I wanted to jump out of a cake!‎ ‎ Long ago when I was a kid, my cousin Licha got a creative cake for her birthday, which was carved with a doll’s skirt. I was dying from 42 , but my mother was not ‎ 43 of my secret desire. I didn’t know back then to make my needs known by 44 . ‎ ‎ At sixty I now know to say what I want, or better yet, buy what I 45 want myself. And this is how my pastry-themed costume party 46 . It was held at a restaurant that serves wonderful food. What an amazing sight it was to watch guests ‎ 47 dressed in costume! My hairdresser Ben wore a banana. My assistant Ernesto was charming as a baker. We sang along 48 a musician who sang and played an instrument ‎ 49 . ‎ ‎ But the day didn’t 50 ! We marched down the street like a parade to the town center. A row of relatives and friends 51 me on my arrival with Las Mananitas, the tradition birthday song, which was the most 52 moment, with aunts, uncles, children, cousins cakewalking in costume with us. Well, who could 53 for anything more? We danced 54 the songs we’d paid for ran out, and the musicians turned around and walked away. But then I shouted and 55 them ‎ to come back and play two more, and they did! What an unusual birthday! ‎ ‎36.‎ A. ever B. never C. sometimes D. seldom ‎37.‎ A. express B. please C. persuade ‎ D. settle ‎38.‎ A. vacation B. completion C. celebration D. direction ‎39.‎ A. topic B. theme C. object D. subject ‎40.‎ A. commanded B. permitted C. refused D. required ‎41.‎ A. visitors ‎ B. readers ‎ C. colleagues D. neighbors ‎42.‎ A. hate B. love C. envy ‎ D. doubt ‎43.‎ A. confident B. conscious ‎ C. proud D. certain ‎44.‎ A. speaking out B. standing out C. taking out D. holding out ‎45.‎ A. usually B. really C. hardly D. happily ‎46.‎ A. talked about B. dreamed about C. looked about D. came about ‎47.‎ A. leave B. reach C. arrive D. avoid ‎48.‎ A. to ‎ B. from C. as ‎ D. for ‎49.‎ A. shyly B. loudly ‎ C. slowly D. silently ‎50.‎ A. end B. happen C. matter D. fail ‎51.‎ A. commented B. depended C. congratulated ‎ D. carried ‎52.‎ A. enthusiastic B. ridiculous C. optimistic D. ambitious ‎53.‎ A. care B. answer ‎ C. pay ‎ D. desire ‎54.‎ A. after B. until C. unless D. when ‎55.‎ A. advised B. warned C. begged ‎ D. ordered 第Ⅱ卷 注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。‎ Y 第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第二节（10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ ‎ American singer and songwriter Bob Dylan won the Nobel Literature Prize in 2016. Dylan was chosen “for 56 (create) new poetic expressions within the great American song tradition.” ‎ ‎ Some people were 57 (excite) to see the news. Author Salman Rushdie ‎ called Dylan a “great choice.” U.S. President Barack Obama congratulated Dylan on Twitter. He described Dylan as one of his favorite 58 (poet). Others were not sure that a famous and 59 (success) musician needed to win a literature prize ‎ 60 his work. They thought the Academy should have picked a writer who would gain new readers because of the award.‎ ‎ Dylan is the first American 61 (win) the prize since writer Toni Morrison won in 1993.‎ ‎ Dylan was born in 1941 in the Midwestern U.S. state of Minnesota. He was ‎ ‎ 62 (bring) up in a Jewish middle-class family. Dylan taught himself to play the guitar, harmonica and piano. He first started performing in the late 1950s in coffee shops in his home state. Dylan moved to New York City in 1959. He hoped to make ‎ 63 in the growing folk music scene in Greenwich Village. Folk musicians of that time ‎ 64 (most) performed songs from America’s past. 65 , Dylan began to write his own music.‎ 第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）`‎ 第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）‎ ‎1月22号,学生会组织学生到红星社区进行社会实践活动，受到社区居民的欢迎。假如你是李华，学生英文报记者，请根据下列活动内容用英语写一篇新闻报道。活动内容：‎ ‎1. 打扫卫生；‎ ‎2. 做戒烟宣传；‎ ‎3. 辅导学生功课。‎ 注意：‎ ‎1、词数80左右;‎ ‎2、报道标题和记者姓名已给出（不计入总词数）；‎ ‎3、可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ Student Volunteers Brought New Looks to Hongxing Community ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ BY LI HUA, TEENS 第二节：概要写作（满分25分）‎ 阅读下面短文，根据其内容写一篇60词左右的内容概要。‎ In schools and at home, most of US have been scolded or even got punished for daydreaming. The majority of people say that by daydreaming we waste our time and energy in something unproductive. But many medical studies have shown something different. They’ve stressed on the fact that daydreaming works wonders on our imagination, creativity and situation-handling techniques. In fact, many problems can be easily solved if we daydream.‎ ‎ The topmost benefit of daydreaming is that your mood gets the right improvement. By separating yourself from the world around you, you tend to enjoy the loneliness in your mind and get peace from daydreaming as you think about something that calms your senses. When you start imagining things while daydreaming, you will forget all the stress and tension(紧张). Instead, you will get happiness from it and this happiness will turn into a source of energy that helps you work in a good mood.‎ ‎ Many psychologists (心理学家) have said that people who daydream tend to ‎ have a sharper memory. It’s true that when you’re daydreaming, you tend to get carried away to imagine various situations, either real or unreal. You tend to act differently in different situations, trying to satisfy your mind by doing what you want in your dreams. When your mind gets satisfied, you’ re in a better position to concentrate more on your work. Since daydreaming activates (激活）the nerves of your brain, you tend to have higher attentiveness and your ability to remember things will develop.‎ ‎ When you daydream, you automatically imagine yourself as your heart says and therefore, you get to know yourself better. You also start realizing the mistakes you’ve made in life and you start trying your best to avoid repeating them. Such imagination techniques help you to connect yourself with your soul.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ 命题： 镇海中学 缙云中学（审校） 审核：舟山中学 ‎2016学年第二学期浙江省名校协作体 高二年级英语学科参考答案及评分参考（2017年2月）‎ 首命题：镇海中学 次命题兼审校：缙云中学 审核：舟山中学 第一部分 听力（共20题，每小题1.5分；满分30分）‎ ‎ 1-5 BCBAC 6-10 CBABC 11-15 BACAC 16-20 BCBAA 第二部分 阅读理解（第一节10小题，每小题2.5分；第二节5小题；每小题2分。满分35分）‎ ‎ 21-24 DCBA 25-27 DCC 28-30 BAC 31-35 BACFE 第三部分 第一节：完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎ 36-40 ABCBD 41-45 ACBAB 46-50 DCABA 51-55 CADBC ‎ ‎ 第二节: 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ ‎ 56. having created 57. excited 58.poets 59. successful 60. for ‎ 61. to win 62. brought 63. it 64. mostly 65. However 第四部分 ‎ 第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）‎ 一、评分原则 ‎1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。‎ ‎2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎3.词数少于60和多于100，从总分中减去2分。‎ ‎4.评分时，应注意的主要方面为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性以及上下文的连贯性。‎ ‎5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼 及词汇用法均可接受。‎ ‎6.若书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。‎ 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 描述 第五档 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎（13～15分）‎ ‎•覆盖所有内容要点；‎ ‎•应用了较多的语法结构和词汇；‎ ‎•语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言应用能力；‎ ‎•有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑；‎ 完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第四档 ‎（10～12分）‎ 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎•虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；‎ ‎•应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；‎ ‎•语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致；‎ ‎•应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑；‎ 达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第三档 ‎（7～9分）‎ 基本完成了试题规定的部分任务。‎ ‎•虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖部分主要内容；‎ ‎•应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；‎ ‎•有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；‎ ‎•应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯；‎ 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第二档 ‎（4～6分）‎ 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎•漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；‎ ‎•语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；‎ ‎•有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；‎ ‎•较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性；‎ 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。‎ 第一档 ‎（1～3分）‎ 未完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎•明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求；‎ ‎•语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；‎ ‎•较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解；‎ ‎•缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯；‎ 信息未能传达给读者。‎ ‎0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。‎ 三、试题具体要求 ‎（一）内容要点 ‎ 1.打扫卫生； 2.做戒烟宣传； 3.辅导学生功课。‎ （二） 应用词汇和语法结构的情况 ‎ 1.使用与主题相关的词汇；‎ ‎ 2.能够使用恰当的语法结构。‎ ‎（三）上下文的连贯性 按照内容要点展开写作，使用恰当的连接词或表达法使文章内容连贯。‎ 四、 One possible version Student Volunteers Brought New Looks to Hongxing Community ‎ On January 22nd, the Students’ Union organized social practice in Hongxing community. We received a warm welcome upon arrival. Some students offered to do some cleaning in and around the community. Some students coached pupils in English. Others were busy walking around to make the public aware of the harm of smoking. ‎ How time flew! Evening was falling before we knew it. Therefore, we had to say goodbye to them, hoping to participle in more such activities in the future. ‎ ‎ BY LI HUA, TEENS 第二节:概要写作（满分25分）‎ 一、评分原则 ‎1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。‎ ‎2.评分时，先根据所写概要的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎3.词数少于40的或多于80的，从总分中减去2分。‎ ‎4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：‎ ‎ （1）对原文要点的理解和呈现情况；‎ ‎ （2）应用语法结构和词汇的准确性；‎ ‎ （3）上下文的连贯性；‎ ‎ （4）对各要点表达的独立性情况。‎ 5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。‎ 6. 如书写较差以至影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。‎ 二、 各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 描述 第五档 ‎(21～25分)‎ ‎---理解准确，涵盖全部要点。‎ ‎---能准确使用相应的语法结构和词汇。‎ ‎---有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所有完成的概要结构紧凑。‎ ‎---完全使用自己的语言。‎ 第四档 ‎(16～20分)‎ ‎---理解准确，涵盖全部要点。‎ ‎---所使用的语法结构和词汇虽有错误，但完全不影响意义表达。‎ ‎---应用语句间的连接成分，使上下文连贯。‎ ‎---有个别整句抄自原文。‎ 第三档 ‎(11～15分)‎ ‎---理解较为准确，涵盖大部分要点。‎ ‎---有些语法结构和词汇错误，但不影响意义表达。‎ ‎---较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。‎ ‎---出现两句以上整句抄自原文现象。‎ 第二档 ‎(6～10分)‎ ‎---理解有误差，仅涵盖半数要点。‎ ‎---有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达。‎ ‎---较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。‎ ‎---出现两句以上整句抄自原文现象。‎ 第一档 ‎(1～5分)‎ ‎---没有理解原文，造成概要内容与原文主题不符。‎ ‎---有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。‎ ‎---缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。‎ ‎---多个句子抄自原文。‎ ‎0分 白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。‎ One possible version:‎ ‎ Most people regard daydreaming as a waste of time and energy. (要点1) On the contrary, that’s not the case. Many medical researches have found that daydreaming has a lot of benefits. Above all, daydreaming can improve your mood. (要点2) What’s more, it contributes to developing your memory. (要点3) Last but not least, daydreaming helps you to know yourself better. (要点4) ‎ Listening materials Text 1 ‎ W: Tom, Mike told me that your French dictionary was lost last week.‎ M: Mine wasn’t but Bill’s was. ‎ Text 2‎ W: Are you going to Chicago tomorrow?‎ M: Yes. I had thought I’d drive or fly, but I come to think that taking a bus is cheaper and more ‎ ‎ convenient.‎ Text 3 ‎ W: Why were you late for the music class this morning?‎ M: I’m so sorry. I went to bed too late and didn’t hear the alarm this morning.‎ W: Well, I hope it won’t happen next time. ‎ Text 4 ‎ M: Excuse me.‎ W: Yes. What can I do for you?‎ M: I’d like to take those three books out and return these. ‎ W: OK, but they should have been returned earlier. I’ll have to charge you for two days. ‎ Text 5‎ M: What’ll you do with your cat when you leave for vacation? ‎ W: Well, I’m having Ken take care of it.‎ M: Oh, that’s a good idea. ‎ Text 6 ‎ W: Here in the middle with the beautiful white hair is my grandmother. We call her Joy.‎ M: She looks energetic.‎ W: Yeah. Here next to my grandmother on the left is Andrew, my grandfather.‎ M: With the glasses?‎ W: Yeah. Isn’t he handsome? Actually, he looks pretty good for someone 70 years old. Don’t you think ‎ ‎ so?‎ M: He surely does. And your grandmother, is she the same age?‎ W: No. She’s five years younger.‎ M: Does your grandfather still work in a company?‎ W: No. He’s retired now. ‎ Text 7 ‎ M: I’m going to a job fair tomorrow.‎ W: Is that with the American company?‎ M: Yes, that’s right.‎ W: So where is the work place of that American company?‎ M: In London. Since you are the experienced one, can you give me some suggestions?‎ W: You’d better pay more attention to your letter of application. You should print your application letter ‎ ‎ on good-quality white paper.‎ M: OK, I got it. Anything more?‎ W: You’d better get someone to check for spelling and grammatical errors.‎ M: So, can you help me to do this work?‎ W: Of course, with pleasure.‎ M: That’s very kind of you. ‎ Text 8 ‎ W: What’s your favourite sport?‎ M: It’s difficult to say--I like many sports but I think I like football best, because I can play in a team. ‎ ‎ How about you?‎ W: I don’t like football. It’s a boy’s game, I think. Jogging is quiet and relaxing. Do you like it?‎ M: No, I seldom jog. I prefer cycling to jogging. I enjoy seeing the countryside. ‎ W: I’ve heard that you are also good at swimming.‎ M: Ah, yes. Swimming is my second favourite. It gives me a chance to have fun with my friends, especially in summer. But in winter I usually play table tennis. It’s such good exercise. ‎ Text 9 ‎ M: I was at the Student Health Services yesterday. They told me that my blood pressure is too high.‎ W: Then I suppose you need a diet to help bring your blood pressure down.‎ M: That’s right! The doctor told me to see the university nutritionist about it, so here I am. He gave ‎ ‎ me this note for you.‎ W: Let me see. This is a list of the content of different foods. You should say goodbye to potato chips ‎ and some meat, such as pork!‎ M: Oh, no.‎ W: Yes, and goodbye to processed food in general. But you can have almost all fruits and vegetables.‎ M: That part is OK. What worries me is where to eat. Do I have to eat at the university hospital?‎ W: Not at all. I just call the dining-hall manger. He handles all sorts of special menus.‎ M: What if I want to go to a restaurant?‎ W: Just use your list and select your food carefully.‎ M: Thanks a lot. This won’t be nearly as bad as I’d thought. ‎ Text 10 ‎ ‎ I have a lovely daughter. Her name is Ellen. She is only ten years old, but I always take pride in her. ‎ She was born with a hearing problem and a slow response-time to sounds. She came home one spring day to tell me she had competed in a sports meeting, where they had lots of races and other competitive events. Because of her listening disabilities, I tried to think of words to encourage her. I didn’t want to let her down. I have heard many famous coaches do so when athletes are faced with defeat. But before I could speak, she looked up and told me she won two of the races and she had an advantage. I couldn’t believe it. An, I knew it. She must have been given a head start. But before I could say anything, she said, “Daddy, I didn’t get a head start... My advantage was I had to try much harder. ”‎