四川省宜宾市高中2020届高三第一次诊断测试 英语

四川省宜宾市高中2020届高三第一次诊断测试 英语

宜宾市高2017级第一次诊断测试 英 语 ‎（考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分）‎ 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 ‎ 例：How much is the shirt?‎ A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是C。‎ ‎1. What do the speakers need to buy?‎ A. A fridge B. A few chairs. C. A dinner table.‎ ‎2. Where are the speakers?‎ A. In a restaurant. B. In a hotel. C. In a school.‎ ‎3. What does the woman mean?‎ A. Cathy won’t be invited. B. Cathy is sure to come. C. Cathy will be invited. ‎ ‎4. Why does the woman plan to go to town?‎ A. To pay her bills in the bank.‎ B. To buy books in a bookstore.‎ C. To get some money from the bank.‎ ‎5. What is the woman trying to do?‎ A. Finish some writing. B. Print an article. C. Find a newspaper.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ ‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有几个小题， 每题中所给的A.B.C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前， 你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答6、7题。‎ ‎6. What is the man doing?‎ A. Changing seats on the plane. ‎ B. Asking for a window seat.‎ C. Trying to find his seat.‎ ‎7. What is the woman’s seat number?‎ A. ‎6A B. ‎7A C. ‎‎8A 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。‎ ‎8. Why doesn’t the woman take the green T-shirt?‎ ‎·14·‎ A. It’s too small. B. It’s too dark. C. It’s too expensive.‎ ‎9. What does the woman buy in the end?‎ A. A yellow T-shirt. B. A blue T-shirt. C. A pink T-shirt.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. How long has the man been in London?‎ A. One year. B. A few years. C. A couple of months.‎ ‎11. Why did the woman leave her hometown?‎ A. To lead a city life. B. To open a restaurant. C. To find a job.‎ ‎12. Where did the woman come from?‎ A. London. B. Arnside. C. Lancaster.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. What is a daypack?‎ A. box. B. A bag. C. A lock.‎ ‎14. What surprises the girl at school?‎ A. A lot of discussions in class.‎ B. Teachers giving little homework.‎ C. Few students asking questions in class.‎ ‎15. At what time of the term might the conversation take place?‎ A. At the end of it. B. In the middle of it. C. At the beginning of it.‎ ‎16. What do we know about the girl?‎ A. She is new to the school.‎ B. She seldom asks questions in class.‎ C. She writes for the school newspaper.‎ 听第10 段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. What does this text mainly talk about?‎ A. North America. B. Pets. C. Health. ‎ ‎18. What are the two most popular pets?‎ A. Dogs and cats. B. Dogs and birds. C. Birds and fish.‎ ‎19. Why are people with pets healthier than those without pets?‎ A. Because pets can make people feel good.‎ B. Because pets are healthier than human beings.‎ C. Because people with pets may often feel lonely.‎ ‎20. How do people treat their pets in North America?‎ A. They treat their pets like friends.‎ B. They don’t let their pets sleep in their beds.‎ C. They treat them like members of their own family.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ ‎·14·‎ A The Garden of Dreams was the peaceful site in Kathmandu‎, ‎Nepal. The four-acre Garden‎ of ‎Dreams was designed by landscape architect Kishore Narshingh. Most especially, the site was characterized by six pavilions, which symbolized the “six seasons” of Nepal: spring, early summer, the summer monsoon season, early autumn, late autumn, and winter. In its most powerful time, the garden was considered one of the most remarkable feats of landscape design in the country. ‎ Today, visitors will only find three pavilions on just over an acre of land, but the 74,000 square-foot space remains a fresh and green attraction. Through the garden’s original gates are pretty and old-fashioned fountains and ponds, isolated gardens of varying sizes, and the Kaiser Café Restaurant & Bar. Pathways are lined with grass, trees, and flowers from all over the world.‎ While the Garden of Dreams has been transformed into a public space, it remains a quiet and peaceful escape in the center of Kathmandu, and a popular hangout for sunbathers, wanderers, residents, and tourists alike.‎ Know Before You Go The Garden‎ of ‎Dreams is open daily from ‎9 a.m. until 10 p.m. It’s located in the Kaiser Mahal complex in the busy Thamel neighborhood of Kathmandu. Admission to the garden costs Rs. 200 per person for tourists and Rs. 100 for Nepali residents. Wifi is available throughout the garden for Rs. 50 an hour.‎ ‎21. Which item can tourists enjoy in the Garden‎ of ‎Dreams now?‎ A. Six seasons there. ‎ B. A feast with plentiful meals. ‎ C. Beautiful gardens of different sizes. ‎ D. Fishing in the pretty and old-fashioned ponds.‎ ‎22. What is the admission for a local of Nepal and a foreign tourist?‎ A. Rs.350. B. Rs.300. C. Rs.200. D. Rs.100.‎ ‎23. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?‎ A. A Trip to ‎Nepal ‎ B. The Garden‎ of ‎Dreams C. Nepal, A Beautiful Country ‎ D. A Country with Six Seasons B Among the more colorful characters of Leadville’s golden age was H.A.W. Tabor. His history is fast becoming one of the legends of the Old West. Perhaps he was lured by rumors of fortunes to be made in Colorado mines. A few years later he moved west to the small Colorado mining camp known as California Gulch. “Great deposits of lead(铅) are sure to be found here.” he said.‎ Tabor opened a store, which sold everything from boots to salt, flour, and tobacco. It was his custom to “grubstake” miners, in other words, to supply them with food and supplies while they looked for ore (矿石), in return for which he would get a share in the mine if one was discovered.‎ ‎·14·‎ One day in 1878, two miners came in and asked for “grub”. Tabor had decided to quit supplying it because he had lost too much money that way. These were continued, however, and Tabor was too busy to argue with them. “Oh help yourself. One more time won’t make any difference,” He said and went on selling shoes and hats to other customers. The two miners took $17 worth of supplies, in return for which they gave Tabor a one-third interest in their findings. They picked wasteland on the mountain side and began to dig. After nine days they struck silver. Tabor bought the shares of the other two men, and so the mine belonged to him alone. This mine, known as the “Pittsburgh Mine,” made 1,300,000 for Tabor in return for his $17 investment.‎ Later Tabor bought the Matchless Mine for $117,000. This turned out to be even more incredible than the Pittsburgh, yielding $35,000 worth of silver per day at one time. Leadville grew. Tabor became its first mayor, and later became vice-governor of the state.‎ ‎24. Tabor went to Colorado________.‎ A. to seek fortune. B. to sell supplies.‎ C. to open a mine company. D. to look for ore.‎ ‎25. What is Tabor’s custom in his shop? A. Sharing wasteland with miners. ‎ B. Helping the miners to look for ore.‎ C. Supplying everything to miners for free.‎ D. Exchanging items for minerals interests with miners.‎ ‎26. Why didn’t Tabor give up the “grub” with the two miners?‎ A. Because he was specialized in business.‎ B. Because they insisted on making a deal with him.‎ C. Because the other customers prevented him then.‎ D. Because he had earned too much money before.‎ ‎27. What is the intention of the passage?‎ A. To introduce Tabor’s successful experience. ‎ B. To encourage people to start a business.‎ C. To discuss Tabor’s life planning. ‎ D. To tell of the gold rush.‎ ‎ C Some developed countries in the world have begun to shorten working hours. Japan, on the other hand, has been in the culture of overwork. The problem is so severe that the country has even created a term for it: karoshi, which means death by overwork from stress-induced illnesses or severe depression. If the system of four-day workweek is tested in Japan, what will happen?‎ A growing number of smaller companies are adopting a four-day workweek. Now the results of a recent trial at Microsoft (MSFT) suggest it could work even for the biggest businesses.‎ The company introduced a program this summer in Japan called the “Work Life Choice Challenge,” which shut down its offices every Friday in August and gave all employees an extra day off each week.‎ The results were promising: While the amount of time spent on work was cut dramatically, productivity — measured by sales per employee — went up by almost 40% compared to the same period the previous ‎ ‎·14·‎ year, the company said in a statement last week.‎ In addition to reducing working hours, managers urged the staff to cut down on the time they spent in meetings and responding to emails.‎ They suggested that meetings should last no longer than 30 minutes. Employees were also encouraged to cut down on meetings altogether by using an online messaging app (Microsoft’s, of course).‎ The effects were widespread. More than 90% of Microsoft’s 2,280 employees in Japan later said they were impacted by the new measures, according to the company. By shutting down earlier each week, the company was also able to save on other resources, such as electricity.‎ ‎28. Why is the idea four-day workweek tested in Japan?‎ A. Because  overwork has caused serious problems. B. Because the offices must be shut down on Friday. C. Because the staff can get extra days to rest easily. D. Because smaller companies have taken the measure.‎ ‎29. What’s the result of adopting a four-day workweek?‎ A. It is a waste of energy.‎ B. The workers earned less money.‎ C. The working efficiency increases greatly.‎ D. Japan’s unemployment rate is barely rising.‎ ‎30. How can the time the staff spent on meetings be reduced?‎ A. By cancelling meetings.‎ B. By using emails to respond.‎ C. By cutting down working hours.‎ D. By using a certain online messaging app.‎ ‎31. What is the staff’s attitude to the new measures?‎ ‎ A. Supportive. B. Negative. C. Critical. D. Indifferent.‎ D SYDNEY‎ —Australian scientists have designed a system which uses microwaves to break down plastic into an environmentally friendly by-product.‎ Head of Electrical Engineering at Australia’s James‎ Cook ‎University, Prof. Mohan Jacob revealed on Thursday that by using microwaves, plastic waste can be converted into biochar(生物炭), charcoal that can be used as a soil conditioner.‎ ‎“We are developing a processing room, which could process many kinds of plastic materials, up to 5 kilograms of waste,” Jacob said. “It will be a typical example system for the development of biochars from different types of plastics under various conditions.” Jacob explained that microwave energy is used to heat the plastic waste above 600 degrees centigrade within the custom-made room, where it ends up as a biochar, which can then be used to improve the properties of soil.‎ Currently underway is step one of the project, testing the room, after which, step two will involve improving the energy efficiency of the system and maximizing the yield of by-products. If all goes to plan, step three will be to construct a medium scale waste processing system which is customizable and can be installed remotely.‎ Jacob said that with the average person using ‎130 kg of plastic every year, there is an urgent need for developing better ways of processing it.‎ ‎·14·‎ ‎“Perhaps contrary to popular opinion, plastic is an indispensable material in modern life. It is cheap, competent, lightweight, and has many benefits like maintaining food quality and safety and preventing waste,” he said.‎ However, “abandoned plastics endanger our marine wildlife, and have begun to enter the food chain. There is an urgent need for developing technologies to recover plastic waste.”‎ ‎32. How does the system function?‎ A. Microwaves are used to produce plastic.‎ B. Plastic waste is heated in the microwaves.‎ C. Plastic waste is cut into pieces and buried into the soil.‎ D. Microwaves change plastic waste into biochar by heating.‎ ‎33. Which statement is true according to Jacob?‎ A. Plastic consumption now is acceptable. ‎ B. Plastic should be abandoned in our life. ‎ C. The system of processing plastic has come into use. D. Finding better ways to deal with plastic waste is urgent.‎ ‎34. What does “recover” in the last paragraph mean? ‎ A. Make up for a loss in time.‎ B. Find or regain lost possession.‎ C. Extract or recycle an energy source for reuse.‎ D. Return to a normal state of health, mind or strength.‎ ‎35. What does the passage mainly tell about?‎ A. 3 steps of processing plastic waste.‎ B. A way of producing plastic products easily.‎ C. A new system of breaking down plastic waste.‎ D. A program designed for plastic use in the daily life.‎ 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ A sea of decisions stretches before us and have a larger impact on our lives. We’re attacked with so many decisions that it’s impossible to make a perfect choice every time. However, there are many different ways to make it. 36 ‎ Here’s one 4-step process that may help you solve any number of problems:‎ 1. Formulate your question. 37 This isn’t always as straightforward as it sounds. But, if you approach the situation with a clear view of what you’re actually trying to accomplish, that’ll equip you to sift through this information critically and find what you are looking for. And you can decide whether the new fashion really suits your needs.‎ 2. ‎ 38 There’s lots of it out there, so having a clear idea of your question will help you determine what’s relevant. Information gathering helps you weigh different options, choosing a decision that meets your goal.‎ ‎3. Apply the information—something you do by asking critical questions. For example, in an email ‎ ‎·14·‎ that promises you millions, you should consider: ‘What is shaping my approach to this situation?’ ‘ ‎‎39 ’‎ ‎4. Consider the implications. For the promise that seems great at first glance, try to think about the long-term effects and unintended results. ‎ Critical thinking can offer the tools to make a perfect choice. 40 And if enough of us use it, it has the power to make the world more reasonable.‎ A. Gather your information.‎ B. Raise some valuable questions.‎ C. Can you help me with the decisions?‎ D. Do I assume the sender is telling the truth?‎ E. Also, it can help us find what we really need.‎ F. In other words, know what you’re looking for.‎ G. One particularly effective skill is critical thinking.‎ 第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)‎ 第一节 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ I had been swimming competitively for about five years and was ready to quit because I felt I was horrible at it. I kept 41 “Honorable Mentions”（安慰奖）. Any 42 knows that you don’t want to have a bookshelf full of “Honorable Mentions”, which you get just because you 43 . ‎ One summer day, the day ‎44 a big swim meet, I decided to tell my grandma that I was quitting the swim team, but she said, “Baby, 45 these words: ‘A quitter never wins and a winner never quits.’ You go to that swim meet tomorrow.”‎ The next day we arrived at the swim meet late, 46 my group of swimmers in the 15/ 16 age group. My 47 insisted that I be allowed to swim with the 48 group. I knew that she was 49 me in the race so that our long drive would not be 50 . As I got on the board, I quickly noticed that these girls were here to do one thing—to 51 me! All of a sudden my grandma’s words ‎52 in my head, “Ouitters never win and winners never quit, quitters never win and winners never quit.”‎ SPLASH!‎ I was swimming 53 than I’d swum before. As I drew my right arm back, I noticed l was tied with one person. I assumed we were battling for the eighth place and I refused to finish dead last, so I added more kick on the 54 200 yards. I hit the wall and 55 to the left and to the right for the swimmers who had beaten me, but no one was there. They must have gotten out of the 56 already. I raised my head to see my coach 57 hysterically(歇斯底里). My eyes 58 her pointing finger and I couldn’t believe what I saw. The other swimmers had just reached the halfway point of the 59 ! That day, at age 15, I broke the national 17/18-year-old 400-freestyle record. I had hung up my honorable mentions. That day, I 60 them with a huge gold medal.‎ ‎·14·‎ ‎41.A. receiving B. quitting C. refusing D. wishing ‎42.A. reader B. swimmer C. athlete D. learner ‎43.A. come around B. get out C. show up D. give off ‎44.A. after B. before C. during D. in ‎45.A. write B. have C. learn D. remember ‎46.A. missing B. winning C. losing D. having ‎47.A. grandma B. fan C. coach D. friend ‎48.A. older B. younger C. quicker D. stronger ‎49.A. calling B. including C. teaching D. forgetting ‎50.A. wasted B. considered C. dropped D. seen ‎51.A. hate B. love C. beat D. praise ‎52.A. heard B. sang C. shouted D. rang ‎53.A. harder B. faster C. longer D. later ‎54.A. first B. last C. most D. over ‎55.A. swam B. came C. jumped D. looked ‎56.A. breath B. water C. time. D. race ‎57.A. encouraging B. smiling C. running D. screaming ‎ ‎58.A. saw B. held C. followed D. grasped ‎59. A. pool B. road C. field D. board ‎60.A. helped B. joined C. admired D. replaced 第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)‎ 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ Hongyadong, 61 (locate) on cliffs above a river, is a vast complex in mock-traditional style in Chongqing. Its bars, restaurants and golden neon lights have been a popular draw 62 it was built in 2006. Last year 63 number of visitors increased.‎ The main reason, it seemed, was Hongyadong’s sudden 64 (popular) on a social-media app, Douyin, which is used for sharing photographs and 15-second videos.‎ ‎ 65 (upload) a picture or video from a photogenic spot to sites such as Douyin and Kuaishou is known  in China 66 daka, meaning “punching the card”. The aim is not to produce a well-crafted video or beautiful photograph, but simply 67 ( show) that you have also been to the places that are popular.‎ A subculture 68 (develop) among young people who embrace daka as a lifestyle till now. So-called daka zu can be found roaming Chongqing and other 69 (city), checking in at as many hot locations as possible within a single day.‎ The daka craze may have practical origins. China’s young urban professionals have little vacation time. So workers need to make the 70 ( much) of their limited leisure time. Douyin captures the mood with its slogan: “ Make every second count.”‎ 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)‎ 第一节 短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)‎ ‎·14·‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除:把多余的词用斜线()划掉。‎ 修改:在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意: 1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。‎ ‎ I’m writing to invite you join us in playing in one of William Shakespeare’s well-known play, Romeo and Juliet. The play, that will be put on three weeks from now, is looking for a young man to play a role of Romeo. I think you are the right person. You are familiar to the story because you have just finished a paper on it. Besides, I had experience in performing when you are in England. What you need it to do is to memorize a few lines and do some practice. It is no doubt that your participation will make the play a greatly success. ‎ I’m looking forward to your reply.‎ 第二节 书面表达(满分25分)‎ 假如你是李华，你的朋友Jack要来你的家乡参观，请你根据下列要点写一篇电子邮件回复，介绍你的家乡。‎ 1. 自然环境（绿水青山，环境优美）；‎ 2. 人文环境（交通便利，生活和谐）；‎ 3. 表示欢迎。‎ 注意： 1. 词数100左右；‎ ‎2. 包括所有要点，但不得逐字翻译。‎ ‎ ‎ Dear Jack,‎ I’m very glad to hear that you are going to pay a visit to my home town. _______________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎·14·‎ ‎______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　 ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ Yours sincerely, ‎ ‎ Li Hua ‎ 宜宾市高2017级第一次诊断测试 英语参考答案及评分意见 ‎ 2019.12‎ 第一部分（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎ 1-5. BBBCA 6-10. CBACB 11-15.CBBCC 16-20. ABAAC 第二部分（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）‎ ‎ 21-23. CBB 24-27. ADBA 28-31. ACDA 32-35. DDCC 36-40. GFADE 第三部分  语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ ‎41-45. ACCBD 46-50. ACABA 51-55. CDABD 56-60. BDCAD 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ ‎61. located 62. since 63. the 64. popularity 65. Uploading /To upload 66. as 67. to show 68. has developed/ has been developing 69. cities 70. most 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ I’m writing to invite you ∧join us in playing in one of William Shakespeare’s well-known play, ‎ ‎ to plays Romeo and Juliet. The play, that will be put on three weeks from now, is looking for a young man ‎ ‎ which to play a role of Romeo. I think you are the right person. You are familiar to the story because you ‎ ‎ the with have just finished a paper on it. Besides, I had experience in performing when you are in England. ‎ ‎ you were What you need it to do is to memorize a few lines and do some practice. It is no doubt that your ‎ ‎ There participation will make the play a greatly success. ‎ ‎·14·‎ ‎ great I’m looking forward to your reply.‎ 书面表达(满分25分)‎ Dear Jack,‎ I’m very glad to hear that you are going to pay a visit to my home town. Now, I’d like to tell you something about my hometown—Yibin.‎ Yibin is located in the south of Sichuan Province, in the intersection of Jinsha River, Min River and Yangtze River. It is a beautiful city with green water and green hills all around it.‎ Yibin is an important transportation hub of Sichuan‎ ‎Province. High-speed rail, expressways, waterways and airlines are conveniently available to the city. The new airport, about ‎10km from the city’s downtown area, operates flights to major cities. People who are happily living here are kind and hardworking. They enjoy the convenience brought by modernization.‎ ‎ Hope to see you soon in Yibin.‎ Yours sincerely, ‎ ‎ Li Hua 一、评分原则 ‎1. 本题总分为25分，按5档次给分。‎ ‎2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎3. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法的准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。‎ ‎4. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考试。‎ ‎5. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。‎ 二、内容要点： ‎ 写信缘由；‎ 自然环境（绿水青山，环境优美）；‎ 人文环境（交通便利，生活和谐）；‎ 表示欢迎。‎ 三、要点认定：‎ ‎1. 考生必须有较完整的句子表达出要点。如只有关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为要点写出。‎ ‎2. 围绕要点的发挥，如有语言错误，则扣语言分。‎ 四、为了操作方便，按表达要点的多少和使用语言的情况，划分为五个档次，列表说明如下： ‎ 档次 得分 要点数 语言情况 五 ‎21—25‎ ‎4‎ 语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。‎ 四 ‎16—20‎ ‎4‎ 语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。‎ 三 ‎11—15‎ ‎3‎ 语言有一些错误，尚能达意。‎ 二 ‎6—10‎ ‎2‎ 语言错误很多，影响表达。‎ ‎·14·‎ 一 ‎0—5‎ ‎1‎ 只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词。‎ 注意：‎ ‎1. 原则上应按照考生所表达的要点数归档。如语言错误多，可降一档，如语言表达较好，可打该档最高分或上升一档。‎ ‎2. 在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定五个分值。‎ ‎2个错误，取该档次分值的高线。‎ ‎3—4个错误，取该档次分值的中线。‎ ‎5个错误，取该档次分值的低线。‎ ‎6个以上降一档，10个左右错误取其降档后的低线。‎ 录音原文 Text 1‎ W: What do you think we need to buy for our new kitchen?‎ M: We’ve got a fridge and a dinner table already. We need some chairs.‎ Text 2‎ M: I like to stay two nights, please.‎ W: Do you want full board or half board?‎ M: What’s the difference?‎ W: Full board includes all meals, and half board includes just breakfast and dinner.‎ Text 3‎ M: Shouldn’t we invite Cathy to the party tonight?‎ W: Invite Cathy? She is the one who is planning the whole thing.‎ Text 4‎ M: Did you say you were driving to town this morning?‎ W: Yes. I have to draw some money from the bank to pay my bookstore bills.‎ Text 5‎ M: What are you working on so hard?‎ W: An article for the newspaper. If I’m late, it won’t get printed until next week.‎ 第二节 Text 6‎ M: Excuse me. I think you are in my seat.‎ W: Sorry, but it says ‎7A on my boarding card.‎ M: Oh, um… right. I asked for a window seat, you see.‎ W: Yeah, so did I. What’s your seat number?‎ ‎·14·‎ M: Let’s see. Oh, it’s ‎8A.‎ W: So I guess you are in the seat behind me.‎ M: Oh, yes. Sorry about that.‎ Text 7‎ M: Can I help you?‎ W: Yes. How much are these T-shirts?‎ M: They are 12 dollars 50 cents each.‎ W: I like the green one, but it isn’t big enough. Have you got a larger size?‎ M: Just a minute. No, I’m sorry, we haven’t. What about the black one?‎ W: No, it’s too dark. I prefer something lighter, yellow or pink.‎ M: How about the pink one?‎ W: Yes. That’s nice. I’ll take it.‎ M: That’s 12 dollars 50 cents then, please.‎ W: Here you are.‎ Text 8‎ W: So how long have you been living in London?‎ M: Umm… a couple of years. How long have you been working here?‎ W: Only a few months. I moved down here for the job. There was no work for me where I came from.‎ M: Where did you come from then?‎ W: I came from a small village called Arnside, near Lancaster a year ago. Umm… there was nothing to do there, so I moved to London.‎ M: Do you enjoy working here in this restaurant?‎ W: Very much so.‎ Text 9‎ M: I’m sure you’ve noticed a lot of things that are different about our school.‎ W: Oh, yes. In the United States, we don’t have to carry a big school bag with us like you do.‎ M: Why is that?‎ W: We have a locker of our own which is a small box with a lock. We keep textbooks and our personal things in it. I just bring a daypack to school.‎ M: A daypack?‎ W: Yes. It’s a small bag that you carry on your back.‎ M: What do you carry in it?‎ W: My notebooks or a few books for homework.‎ M: That’s convenient. Is there anything else you’ve noticed about our school?‎ W: Yes. I am surprised that everyone is so silent in class.‎ M: What do you mean?‎ W: Well, we usually ask questions about exams, homework or textbooks on the first day of the school year. The teacher likes such questions.‎ M: So you felt it different?‎ W: Yes. I expected to see a lot of discussions in class because we learn that way in the United States.‎ ‎·14·‎ M: I see. That will be a good topic for our school newspaper for the first month of the term. Nice talking with you. See you around. Bye!‎ W: Bye!‎ Text 10‎ Today I’d like to share some interesting facts with you about pets in North America. First of all, does anyone know how many families have pets? If you say 60%, you are right! Sixty percent of families have at least one pet. What about the most popular pets? I believe most of you already know the answer—dogs. In fact, dogs and cats are the two most popular pets. Other popular pets are birds and fish. Some people have all of them. ‎ Now let’s talk about how pets help their owners. You probably know that people help pets. They feed them and take care of them. But do you know pets help their owners feel good? People who don't have pets often feel lonely, especially older people. Pets can also be helpful to people’s health. It’s true! People with pets are healthier than those without pets.‎ Finally, I’ll tell you that people in North America treat their pets like members of their own family. Many people let their pets sleep in their beds. And sometimes the owners carry a picture of their pets with them! ‎ ‎·14·‎