2018-2019学年湖北省宜昌市葛洲坝中学高一下学期期中考试英语试题

2018-2019学年湖北省宜昌市葛洲坝中学高一下学期期中考试英语试题

‎2018-2019学年湖北省宜昌市葛洲坝中学高一下学期期中考试英语试题 ‎ 考试时间：2019年4月 第Ⅰ卷（选择题，共100分）‎ 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） ‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. Where does the man get the method of dealing with stress?‎ A. From his own experience. ‎ B. From what others have done.‎ C. From the book he has read. ‎ ‎2. How will the speakers probably find the right place for dinner?‎ A. By looking around.‎ B. By surfing the Internet. ‎ C. By asking the local people. ‎ ‎3. What will the man drink?‎ A. Hot tea. B. Coffee. C. Cold soda.‎ ‎4. Why does the man need the green socks?‎ A. To attend a wedding. ‎ B. To attend a birthday party. ‎ C. To celebrate a special day.‎ ‎5. What does the man do twice a week?‎ A. Lifting weights. B. Jogging. C. Practicing boxing.‎ 第二节:（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟；听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6 ～ 7题。‎ ‎6. How many minutes was the man late for the meeting?‎ A. 10 minutes. B. 20 minutes. C. 30 minutes.‎ ‎7. What caused the man to be late?‎ A. Getting up late. B. Having car problems. C. Being stuck in traffic.‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8 ～ 9题。‎ ‎8. What time is it now?‎ A. 9:00 a.m. B. 9:20 a.m. C. 9:45 a.m.‎ ‎9. Why does the woman think the man is crazy?‎ A. He doesn’t have breakfast. ‎ B. He ate the apple in her bag.‎ C. He’ll buy food at the airport.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10 ～ 12题。‎ ‎10. Where does the conversation take place?‎ A. At a bookstore. ‎ B. At a toy store. ‎ C. At a children’s clothing store. ‎ ‎11. What is the doll wearing?‎ A. A red shirt. B. Blue pants. C. Green pants.‎ ‎12. What can be known from the conversation?‎ A. The man has blamed his daughter. ‎ B. The doll is a big one. ‎ C. The woman is kind and helpful.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13 ～ 16题。‎ ‎13. Why does the woman suggest the man stay in the suburbs of London?‎ A. He can travel around. B. He can spend less money. C. He can live quietly.‎ ‎14. Which place has lots of history?‎ A. Bath. B. Oxford. C. Cambridge.‎ ‎15. Where has the woman never been?‎ A. Oxford. B. Bath. C. Cambridge.‎ ‎16. How will the man probably get to Oxford or Bath?‎ A. By car. B. By train. C. By bus. ‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17 ～ 20题。‎ ‎17. Who was the speaker’s first “real” teacher?‎ A. Susan. B. Sue. C. Rhonda.‎ ‎18. In which year did the speaker have the most fun?‎ A. Second grade. B. Third grade. C. Fourth grade.‎ ‎19. Why did the speaker like Ms. Richardson?‎ A. She was very kind. B. She was quite beautiful. C. She was very smart. ‎ ‎20. What is TRUE about the speaker’s school life?‎ A. She became one of the best students.‎ B. She became lazier as time went on.‎ C. She got into trouble in every school year.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。‎ A ‎ Give It a Go! One off Volunteering Our Oneoff programme allows you to take part in volunteering activities with no regular commitment such as dog walking, helping your local community and so on.‎ Transport is provided from campus when activities can't be reached by public transport or on foot from campus.‎ Canley Pop Up Cafe：Chinese New Year Special!‎ Date: Saturday 17 February 2018‎ Time: 10: 30 — 15: 30‎ Help run fun games and activities for Canley citizens.‎ Canley Pop Up Cafes aim to initiate community interaction and raise awareness of cultural diversity and difference as being positive by creating spaces that encourage neighbours to meet, talk, share talents, histories and knowledge.‎ Dogs Trust Volunteer Day Date: Friday 23 February 2018‎ Time: 09: 55 — 16: 00‎ Join us for a day with the Dogs Trust. Help exercise the dogs, prepare food and clean the dog shelter.‎ Transport and lunch will be provided by Warwick Volunteers.‎ Kings Hill Nursery Date: Wednesday 16 May 2018‎ Time: 09: 05 — 13: 15‎ Kings Hill Nurseries provide placements, training, work experience and jobs for people with learning disabilities. Volunteers will help support adults with disabilities with gardening tasks. No previous experience required.‎ Transport from campus provided.‎ Friends of Canley Green Spaces — Woodland Path Clearance ‎ Date: Saturday 10 March 2018‎ Time: 10: 30 — 13: 30‎ Help clean a woodland pathway by removing a mass of dead wood from low lying tree branches. By cutting away the wood, walking along the path will be much easier. A more attractive pathway will also encourage people to explore Park Wood, one of Canley's ancient bluebell woodlands.‎ Please wear suitable outdoor clothing and strong shoes or boots that you don't mind getting a little muddy.‎ ‎21. What is the purpose of Canley Pop Up Cafes?‎ A. To improve the neighbourhood. B. To provide jobs for volunteers. ‎ C. To ask for help from neighbours. D. To encourage neighbours to consume.‎ ‎22. Which activity lasts longest?‎ A. Kings Hill Nursery. B. Canley Pop Up Cafe.‎ C. Dogs Trust Volunteer Day. D. Friends of Canley Green Spaces.‎ ‎23. What is the main task in the last activity?‎ A. Planting trees. B. Clearing the path.‎ C. Guiding the tourists. D. Widening the path.‎ B When I was three years old, I couldn't speak. It was a strange reality that none of the doctors I visited could understand.‎ One day, I was shadowing (尾随) my mother. She found herself looking in a mirror, and through it our eyes met. She began to speak to me through the reflection, and I slowly began to mimic (模仿) her mouth's movements until I formed a word.‎ It turned out that I'm deaf in my left ear, and have a slight problem in my right. Being hard of hearing has been difficult, but I've never lived in a state of ‎ selfhating sorrow. Imagine being able to shut out all sound as you lay your head down to sleep by simply rolling over onto one side. That's my reality when I sleep on my “good ear”, and it makes me feel like a superhero sometimes.‎ People call my deaf side my “bad ear”, but when I wear my hearing aid, I have access to a range of features that some other deaf people don't. In cinemas, for example, with one click of a button I can enjoy a whole film as though it were whispered to me from the mouths of the actors.‎ Owning a hearing aid hasn't always felt good, however. On the first day I got my aid, when I was eight, I took it to school for show and tell. As I explained how it worked to my classmates, a boy yelled out, “Aren't those for old men?” At that moment, I felt different. It took a long time for me to get over that sense of being so unlike my peers.‎ But it's not just schoolkids who can make us deaf and hardofhearing people feel like burdens. Every video on social media that lacks subtitles (字幕), for example, means an entire community of deaf people is unable to enjoy it. Completely deaf people are excluded(排除) from enjoying many movies too, as subtitles in cinemas are almost impossible to find.‎ And with hearing aids costing around $ 2,500 each, it can be hard for many people to afford to be able to listen to the things that others take for granted. As for me, I can listen to music, enjoy films, and catch conversations — I'm lucky. I'm deaf, but I can still hear everything. I've been blessed with wonderful life experiences, and I am human. And when it comes to sleeping, I'm even superhuman.‎ ‎24. How does the author view his hearing difficulty?‎ A. It's a disaster and causes him a lot of trouble.‎ B. It gave him a chance to experience something special.‎ C. It made him feel embarrassed in front of his classmates.‎ D. It helped him to live in his own world without being interrupted.‎ ‎25. What can be inferred from the passage about the author?‎ A. The hearing aid brings much convenience to his daily life. ‎ B. He is optimistic and helpful.‎ C. His family and classmates have supported him a lot.‎ D. He was born deaf. ‎ ‎26. What is the author's attitude toward his life?‎ A. Disappointed. B. Anxious. C. Excited. D. ‎ Grateful. ‎ ‎27. What is the author's main purpose in writing the passage?‎ A. To give advice on life to disabled people.‎ B. To show how difficult life is for disabled people.‎ C. To share his experience of treating a disadvantage with gratitude.‎ D. To show the convenience a hearing aid could bring.‎ C ‎ Music is not just a set of sounds and rhythms. Its influence on the brain is much deeper than any other human experience. Keep on reading to know all those amazing powers of music.‎ A recent study suggests that preterm (早产的) babies appear to experience less pain and feed more when listening to music. Experts led by Dr. Manoj Kumar of the University of Alberta, Canada, found that music had a beneficial effect on reducing pain for preterm babies experiencing painful medical tests. It also appeared to benefit full-term babies during operations.‎ Many people experiencing brain damage have speech and movement-related problems. Music can help recover from brain injuries. As a different and effective treatment, doctors often advise such patients to listen to good music to improve the parts of the brain responsible for these two functions. When people with neurological (神经的) disorders hear a musical beat, it helps them to regain a balanced walk.‎ Though music cannot make deafness disappear, it really can stave off the loss of hearing. There was an experiment involving 163 people where 74 were musicians. Participants were asked to pass some listening tests. Musicians heard the sounds better than non-musicians, and this difference gets clearer with age. This means that a 70-year-old musician hears better than a 50-year-old non-musician, even in a noisy environment.‎ Besides, music mends a broken heart. It is not about a thrown-away love, but about a heart attack. The matter is that music can help people recover from a heart attack or heart operation by reducing blood pressure, slowing down the heartbeat rate, and reducing anxiety. Listening to the quality music produces positive emotions, improves the movement of blood, and expands blood vessels, thus, promoting quick recovery of the whole cardiovascular (心血管的) system.‎ ‎28. How does music affect preterm babies?‎ A. It helps improve their hearing systems. B. It helps develop their ‎ potential in music.‎ C. It helps reduce their pain. D. It helps repair their neurological systems.‎ ‎29. What does the underlined phrase “stave off” in Paragraph 4 mean?‎ A. Lead to B. Prevent C. Increase D. Break into ‎30. Why can music mend a broken heart?‎ A. It has a positive effect on human body systems’ work.‎ B. It can help people prevent diseases caused by anxiety.‎ C. It helps make a person feel optimistic about life.‎ D. It can help patients recover in a slow way.‎ ‎31. What may be the best title for the text?‎ A. Who can benefit from music B. How music affects our mind and body C. The way to choose quality music D. The best time to listen to music D Many people believe eating healthily is expensive — and more costly than buying junk foods. But our new research, published in the BMC Public Health, shows this isn’t the truth. ‎ Most of the Australian family food budget (预算) is being spent on junk foods and drinks that are high in fat, sugar and salt. ‎ Less than 7% of Australians eat healthily. The Australian adults get at least 35% of their energy from junk foods and drinks. As a result, two-thirds of adults (63%) and one-quarter of children are overweight.‎ We used the Australian Health Survey 2011-2013 and the suggestions of the Australian Dietary Guidelines to model healthy diets for a family of two adults and two children every two weeks. We collected food prices in supermarkets and stores in high- and low-socioeconomic (社会经济地位低的) areas in Brisbane, and compared the diet prices with family incomes.‎ In both areas, a family of two adults and two children spend about 18% more on present diets than would be required to buy healthy diets. About 58% of the food budget for present diets is spent on junk foods, including takeaway foods (14%), and sugary drinks (4%). ‎ In the low-socioeconomic area, a family of two adults and two children spend $640.20 every two weeks on their present diets, but could buy a healthy diet for ‎ $560.93 every two weeks. In the high-socioeconomic area, these numbers are $661.92 and $580.01.‎ Supermarket food prices were about 3% higher in the high-socioeconomic location. Takeaway foods were also relatively more expensive, but sugary drinks were priced similarly in both areas.‎ Present diets cost more than healthy diets, so causes other than price must be helping to drive preferences for unhealthy choices.‎ ‎32. What did the researchers find?‎ A. Most Australians eat unhealthily.‎ B. Most Australian kids have fat problems.‎ C. Half Australians live on junk foods. ‎ D. Australians have a preference for sweet foods. ‎ ‎33. How did the researchers get the result?‎ A. By carrying out interviews. B. By doing the study online.‎ C. By making a comparison. D. By asking personal questions.‎ ‎34. What can we learn from Paragraph 5?‎ A. Australian foods are healthier. ‎ B. A healthy diet is actually cheaper.‎ C. Health foods are becoming more expensive. ‎ D. People choose junk foods for their low prices.‎ ‎35. What might a following paragraph be about?‎ A. The harm of junk foods. B. How we can eat healthily.‎ C. The advantages of a healthy diet. D. Why people choose junk foods.‎ 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Earth is home to around 7,000 languages, around half of which are expected to disappear by 2100.‎ Languages disappear for many reasons. Sometimes younger generations stop learning a language because parents want children to fit in. 36 Native American children of the late-19th century were required to attend boarding schools where educators forbade them from speaking their native languages.‎ The United Nations ranks endangered languages according to their risk level. For example, a "critically endangered" language is one that even grandparents don't speak often. New York's Onondaga language is an example with only 50 speakers left. An "extinct" language has no speakers. It is gone forever. Alaska's Eyak language is one example. 37 ‎ ‎38 In the same way, different languages contribute to cultural diversity. Saving these languages benefits our understanding of other cultures. Languages can show how a society looks at the world and what it values. A language may describe something in a way that is funny, too. In Welsh, it rains not cats and dogs, but old wives and walking sticks.‎ The Endangered Language Alliance wants to save languages from disappearing. 39 However, its efforts are limited. If an endangered language is going to make a real comeback, it'll probably get its start in schools. For nearly 100 years, public schools in Hawaii did not teach the Hawaiian language. Now students can keep learning in Hawaiian from elementary schools to college and beyond.‎ ‎40 At least one did. In 1881, a Jewish linguist named Eliezer Ben-Yehuda brought the 3,000-year-old language Hebrew back to life. Today it is one of the official languages of the country of Israel, with more than 4 million speakers.‎ A．The last person who spoke it died in 2008.‎ B．Why should we save endangered languages?‎ C．Various animals and plants benefit our environment.‎ D．With just 5 speakers left, it is absolutely endangered.‎ E. Can a language with zero native speakers come back to life?‎ F. Sometimes societies force minorities to give up their language.‎ G. The nonprofit group finds native speakers and records their stories.‎ 第三部分 英语知识运用( 共两节,满分45分)‎ 第一节 完形填空 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)‎ 阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ I ran into a stranger as he passed by. “Oh, excuse me please." was my 41 . He said, “Please excuse me too; I wasn't watching for you." We were very 42 , this stranger and I. We went on our way and we said goodbye. But at home a 43 story is told.‎ Later that day, when I was cooking the evening meal, my daughter stood beside me very 44 . When I 45 , I nearly knocked her down. “Move out of the 46 ,” I said with a frown. She walked away, her little heart broken. I didn't 47 how harshly (严厉地) I'd spoken.‎ While I lay awake in bed that evening, my husband said to me, “While 48 a stranger, you are polite, but with the girl you love, you are 49 . Go look on the kitchen floor and you'll find some flowers by the door. Those are the flowers she brought for 50 . She picked them herself: pink, yellow and blue. She stood quietly not to 51 the surprise, and you 52 saw the tears in her eyes."‎ ‎ 53 , my tears began to fall. I quietly went and knelt down by her bed. “Wake up, little girl," I said. “Are these flowers you picked for me?" She smiled, “I found them out by the tree. I picked them 54 they' re pretty like you. I knew you'd like them, especially the blue."‎ I said, “Daughter, I'm sorry for the way I 55 today. I 56 have yelled at you that way.”‎ She said, “Oh Mom, that 's okay. 57 , I love you."‎ ‎1 said, “Daughter, I love you too. And I do like the flowers, especially the blue."‎ I had got the world 58 again. I'd 59 to be polite to people in the street — good 60 make society work. But a stranger is someone we meet once and then never see again — and family is for life.‎ ‎41. A. response B. sentence C. answer D. speech ‎42. A. careful B. serious C. polite D. unhappy ‎43. A. interesting B. different C. similar D. meaningful ‎44. A. excited B. noisy C. upset D. still ‎45. A. called B. turned C. returned D. removed ‎46. A. way B. space C. house D. area ‎47. A. prove B. care C. realize D. understand ‎48. A. referring to B. dealing with C. listening to D. picking up ‎49. A. anxious B. patient C. disappointed D. unkind ‎50. A. us B. you C. the family D. her friends ‎51. A. ruin B. expect C. announce D. handle ‎52. A. seldom B. simply C. never D. even ‎53. A. By this time B. At one time C. For a time D. At the same ‎ time ‎54. A. while B. so C. unless D. because ‎55. A. considered B. developed C. acted D. performed ‎56. A. mustn't B. couldn't C. wouldn't D. shouldn't ‎57. A. Besides B. Otherwise C. Anyway D. However ‎58. A. clear B. right C. clean D. meaningful ‎59. A. begin B. learn C. change D. continue ‎60. A. manners B. habits C. lifestyles D. behaviors 第II卷（选择题，共50分）‎ 第二节　(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)‎ 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ Khan Academy is an online learning website created in 2006 by Salman Khan, an American educator, and it is aimed at 61 ( provide) "a free, world-class education to anyone, anywhere".‎ Khan offers more than 3,500 free micro lectures, each of  62 usually lasts 10 to 15 minutes. Unlike 63 (tradition) classes, Khan mainly offers courses to students below college level. The classes can also help those planning to take the SAT, 64 exam often required for students wishing to enter an American college or university.‎ ‎65 ( start) your learning journey at Khan Academy, you should first of all visit the website with a personal e-mail account. Your personal homepage at Khan Academy 66 (design) to help you learn math. You can take a pretest first to see your level. The academy then suggests exercises at the right level for you.‎ ‎ If you are interested in other subjects, click "LEARN" to see all topics 67 ( offer) online. Try ‘‘Art History”, for example, 68 you will be taken to all the things in that area like articles, videos and questions.‎ ‎ Don’t worry if you find 69 difficult to follow the course in English. Courses translated 70 Chinese, Japanese and other languages are also available.‎ 第四部分　写作(共两节，满分35分)‎ 第一节　短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线()划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎2．只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。‎ Last weekend, after pay a visit to the city of New York, I visited the National Air and Space Museum of the Smithsonian Institution, where lies in Washington, D. C.‎ The museum, which covers a area of 18,000 square meters, is made of 24 exhibition halls. All kinds of planes, rockets, missiles and spaceship of great importance and variously old instruments that famous pilots and astronauts used are on display. In addition, I see copies of some satellites and aircraft. More interestingly, I tried operating on some aircraft by myself. During the visit, I took lots of pictures as well.‎ This brief visit helped myself learn much about the history of human space exploration. It made me more interesting in science and technology.‎ 第二节 书面表达（满分25分）‎ 假定你是李华，你的美国朋友Michael对中国文化很感兴趣。他听说中国人很重视家风传承，在给你的电子邮件中提出想了解你家的家风以及家风对你的影响。请你给他回复一封信。 ‎ 注意：1．词数100左右； ‎ ‎2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ ‎ 参考词汇：家风family tradition Dear Michael，‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________‎ Yours，‎ Li Hua 宜昌市葛洲坝中学2018-2019学年第二学期 高一年级期中考试试卷 英语试题答案 听力：CBACB BCACA BCBAC BABCA ‎ 阅读：ACB BADC ABAB ACBD FACGE 完形：ACBDB ACBDB ACADC DCBDA ‎ 填空：providing; which; translated; an; To start; ‎ ‎ is designed; offered; and; it; into 改错： ①pay改为paying。 ②where改为which。‎ ‎ ③a改为an。 ④在made后加up。 ‎ ‎ ⑤spaceship改为spaceships。 ⑥variously改为various。‎ ‎ ⑦see改为saw。 ⑧删除operating后的on。 ⑨myself改为me。 ⑩interesting改为interested。‎ 作文：‎ Dear_Michael，‎ How is everything going? ①I'm glad to know that you are interested in Chinese culture and that you want to know something about my family tradition. ②My grandparents and parents always lay emphasis on the importance of honesty, bravery, perseverance and diligence. And most importantly, they have set good examples to me. My family tradition has a profound influence on me, and thus I always follow what it has taught me. Besides, I am always positive and never stop chasing my goal whenever I run into difficulties.‎ By the way, I sincerely invite you to come to China and stay in my home for some time to experience more Chinese culture by yourself.‎ Yours，‎ Li_Hua ‎【一句多译】‎ ‎①表达方式一：I am exceedingly delighted to hear that you are interested in Chinese culture and that you want to know something about my family tradition.‎ 表达方式二：It makes me delighted that you show great interest in Chinese culture and that you want to know something about my family tradition.‎ ‎②表达方式一：My grandparents and parents always attach the importance to the honesty, bravery, perseverance and diligence.‎ 表达方式二：My grandparents and parents always stress the importance of the honesty, bravery, perseverance and diligence.‎ 高一年级英语试题双向细目表 考查 项目 题型 操作定义 题号 分值 考查知识及要素 听力 听短文，选择正确答案 听懂短文，理解大意，提取相关信息，选出答案。‎ ‎1, 3，5, 6 ,13, 16, 17‎ ‎10.5分 事实细节题 ‎9, 12，19‎ ‎4.5分 观点态度题 ‎2,4,7,8,10,11,14,15,‎ ‎18,20‎ ‎15分 推理判断题 ‎ ‎ 阅读理解能力 阅读理解 针对不同的阅读题材选择恰当的阅读策略获取信息，完成任务。‎ ‎22, 23, 24 25,28‎ ‎10分 细节理解 ‎26, 31‎ ‎4分 主旨大意与标题 ‎21, 27‎ ‎4分 写作意图与观点态度 ‎25, 29，30 ,32，33‎ ‎34，35‎ ‎36-40‎ ‎24分 句/词义等推断题 英语知识运用 完形填空 ‎41， 46， 60‎ ‎4.5分 名词 通读全文掌握全文大意，根据段落中的各句子之间的逻辑关系；理解文章主题和故事梗概以及综合运用语言知识。‎ ‎45, 47，48，51, 55, 56, 59‎ ‎10.5分 动词及短语 ‎42, 43，44，49, 52， 53，57，58‎ ‎12分 形容词和副词 ‎50，54‎ ‎3分 连词和代词 语法填空 考察学生的基础单词拼写和逻辑判断能力。‎ ‎69‎ ‎1.5分 代词 ‎61, 65，67‎ ‎4.5分 非谓语动词 ‎66‎ ‎1.5‎ 时态及语态 ‎62, 68‎ ‎3分 连词和从句 ‎63‎ ‎1.5分 形容词和副词 ‎64，70‎ ‎3分 冠词、介词 改错题 全面考查学生的基础知识和灵活运用语言的能力 ‎72‎ ‎1分 连词和从句 ‎71，77‎ ‎2分 时态语态非谓语动词 ‎74，76，80‎ ‎3分 形容词和副词 ‎78‎ ‎1分 介词 ‎73，75，79‎ ‎3分 冠词代词名词 作文 应用文 说明性介绍信 ‎81‎ ‎25分 语言综合运用能力