2018-2019学年湖北省天门市高一上学期11月月考英语试题

2018-2019学年湖北省天门市高一上学期11月月考英语试题

‎2018-2019学年湖北省天门市高一上学期11月月考英语试题 本试卷共10页，72题。全卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟。‎ 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 做题时，先将答案划在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. How does Mandy want to go to the cinema?‎ A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By taxi. ‎ ‎2. What’s the relationship between the two speakers?‎ A. Teacher and student. B. Boss and employee. C. Father and daughter. ‎ ‎3. Where does the conversation probably take place ?‎ A. In a bank. B. In a train station C. In a restaurant. ‎ ‎4. When will the show start? ‎ A. 7:10. B. 7:20. C. 7:50.‎ ‎5. What are the two speakers talking about? ‎ A. Shopping online. B. Bathroom decoration. C. Saving money.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。‎ ‎6. How long hasn’t the woman had a vacation? ‎ A. For three years. B. For four years. C. For five years.‎ ‎7. What will the woman do next? ‎ A. Make a travel plan. B. Take a vacation. C. Talk with her husband. ‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。‎ ‎8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned? ‎ A. The man’s name. B. The man’s phone number. C. The man’s email address.‎ ‎9. How much will the man pay in total?‎ A. 2400yuan. B. 2420yuan. C. 1620yuan 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. How does the man feel now? ‎ A. Proud. B. Surprised. C. Disappointed.‎ ‎11. How did the man learn dancing? ‎ A. By learning himself. B. By taking courses. C. By learning from his parents.‎ ‎12. Why did the man learn to play the piano? ‎ A. To support his skill. B. To make himself relaxed. C. To make his parents happy.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. Why was the house in a terrible mess?‎ A. A wild monkey got in. B. The kids played a game inside. ‎ C. The woman hasn’t cleaned it for days.‎ ‎14. What was the man doing at that time?‎ A. Watching the little baby. B. Speaking to his boss. C. Mailing some papers.‎ ‎15.What did the cat knock over?‎ A. A lamp. B. The desk. C. The glass of juice.‎ ‎16. How does the woman sound like?‎ A. Angry. B. Worried. C. Embarrassed.‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. What kind of English lessons does the speaker recommend? ‎ A. Examination skills. B. Reading and writing. C. Listening and speaking.‎ ‎18. How can a learner take the lessons when he is not online?‎ A. By using the downloaded sound files. B. By making conversations with others.‎ C. By reviewing words, phrases and idioms.‎ ‎19. What is mentioned as an advantage of the speaker’s online course?‎ A. It improves learners’ English skills quickly. B. It offers learners better cheating skills.‎ C. It helps learners to make friends.‎ ‎20. What’s the speaker’s idea about learning English?‎ A. Being confident in oneself while learning. B. Learning English little by little.‎ C. Having clear learning goals.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解 （共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节 （共15小题：每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ A Roger: Hi, there！It was my 15th birthday last Saturday. Some of my friends and Alan, my cousin, came to celebrate it. Everyone brought me a gift. We played games，sang songs and had a big birthday cake. It was really a wonderful day! Did you do anything special last week?‎ Jessica: Yes, my class were on a school field trip last week. First, we went to the University of North Carolina to learn about the history of its basketball team. Many basketball stars were students there. Then we ‎ visited a museum. We learned about how the plane was invented and took many pictures there.‎ Sara: Well, I was lucky enough to go to a conference(会议) on charity(慈善) last Wednesday. I was excited to meet a lot of kind people there. One of them was a boy named Richard. He spoke at the conference about the charity work that he had done in the past few years.‎ Martin: It was a more different week than usual. Last Thursday, my school band（乐队） went to Atlanta to perform in a competition. I played the violin and we won a prize! On Friday we went to the Georgia Aquarium and got to see different kinds of sea life from over the world. It was really cool!‎ ‎21. When did Roger have his birthday party?‎ A. Last Saturday. B. Last Thursday. C. Last Friday. D. Last Wednesday. ‎ ‎22. Who went on a school field trip last week?‎ A. Alan. B. Sara. C. Jessica. D. Richard.‎ ‎23. Martin went to Atlanta to .‎ A. speak at a conference B. perform in a competition C. organize a party D. visit a university B It was late one evening. I can’t remember what it was about, but my Dad and I had a very big argument when my mother was away. We both said things we didn’t mean, and in the end I said, “I’m leaving.” And he said, “Good. The sooner, the better.” ‎ I threw a few things in the suitcase and closed the door violently behind me, not knowing where I was going. After walking aimlessly for 20 minutes, I stopped at a local supermarket. Then my phone rang. It was my mom calling. She said, “Hey, Mary. Where are you? Dad is worried about you.” ‎ ‎“How can he worry about me? I’ve been away for nearly half an hour, but he didn’t call.” I said with annoyance. My anger returned and I remembered all the ‎ hateful things he’d shouted to me. “Listen, Mom. You can tell Dad that I’m fine. I’ll call you tomorrow.” I said and hung up.‎ I walked around the supermarket, trying to get my thoughts together. By the time I paid for my purchases, it had been much later than I used to be out alone. When I left the supermarket, a large piece of white paper was in front of me. On the piece of white paper were these words: “Please come home! I miss you and I’m worried about you!”‎ Then a car pulled up beside me. Hanging out of the window was my Dad. Besides him, smiling gently, sat my mom. And that’s when I started laughing. I laughed so hard that I cried. Despite(尽管) my best effort to run away from home, my father finally managed to track me down. I couldn’t leave now, not with him sitting there with caring eyes.‎ ‎24. Mary left home because she ________.‎ A. had to make her own living B. had a bad performance at school C. had an argument with her mother D. had a big argument with her father ‎25. After her mother called her, Mary ________.‎ A. tried to calm down B. forgave her father C. became angrier than before D. agreed to go home ‎26. The underlined word “purchases” in Paragraph 4 means “________”.‎ A. goods Mary bought B. actions Mary regretted (后悔)‎ C. telephone calls Mary made D. lessons Mary learned ‎27. What probably happened at the end of the story?‎ A. Mary still refused to go home. B. Mary returned home happily.‎ C. Mary’s father became angry again. D. Mary’s mother was angry with her father.‎ C On my first day of high school, I asked an eleventh grader where my class was. And he told me it was “on the fourth floor, next to the pool.” I found out five ‎ minutes later that we don’t even have a fourth floor and there’s no pool either! Besides that, I didn’t have any trouble with the older kids.‎ I think the biggest difference between middle and high school is the homework load (工作量) and size of the school. I went from maybe fifteen minutes of homework a night to several hours, so I had to learn how to make full use of time! Our class size is around 50, but joining in clubs, sports, music, and other activities at school makes it easier to get to know people in every grade.‎ The best advice I can give about the years you spend in high school is to learn things for yourself, not just to get a good grade. There have been so many tests that I’ve prepared for the night before, gotten an A, and not remembered anything later. I’ve changed that this year, and I enjoy school so much more. Don’t take easy classes just to have a simple year. If you have a choice between chemistry and sports, the first will prove to be a lot more useful!‎ While drinking and smoking might be present in some middle schools, they’re also around in high school. I have a lot of friends who promised they’d never drink or smoke, but are now partying every weekend. If you have “fun” and spend your nights wasted instead of studying, you will regret it when you’re applying for (申请) college. The “friends” who say you’re a loser for not partying are really not your friends at all. It’s hard to see your closest friends grow apart and go in different directions, but don’t follow their footsteps. Create your own path in life and make your own decisions.‎ ‎28. What does the author think of high school?‎ A. It requires hard work. B. There are very few activities.‎ C. It’s hard to meet new people there. D. There isn’t enough time for homework.‎ ‎29. The author advises high school students to________. ‎ A. give up sports B. choose useful classes C. try their best to get good grades D. get ready for tests the night before ‎30. The text is probably written by________. ‎ A. a high school student B. a chemistry teacher C. a college student D. a sports player ‎31. The last paragraph mainly tells us________. ‎ A. about the trouble caused by drinking and smoking B. about the importance of making friends C. not to go to any party in high school D. not to lose ourselves in high school D Everybody hates rats. But in the earthquake capitals of the world—Japan, Los Angeles, and Turkey—rats will soon be man’s best friends.‎ What happens after an earthquake? We send in rescue dogs. Why? Because they can smell people. Dogs save lives. They help rescuers to find living people. But dogs are big and they can’t get into small spaces. So now a new research project is using a smaller animal to save lives：the rats.‎ How does it work? First, a rat is trained to smell people. When this happens, the rat’s brain gives a signal(信号). This is sent to a small radio on its back, and then the rescuers follow the radio signals. When the rat’s brain activity jumps, the rescuers know that someone is alive. The rat has smelled that person. Although there are already robots which can do this job, rats are better. Christian Linster at Cornell University, New York, says, “Robots’ noses don’t work well when there are other smells around. Rats are good at that.” Rats can also see in the dark. They are cheaper and quicker to train than dogs, and unlike robots, they don’t need electricity!‎ The “rat project” is not finished, but Julie Ryan of International Rescue Corps in Scotland says, “It would be fantastic. A rat could get into spaces we couldn’t get to and a rat would get out if it wasn’t safe.” Perhaps for the first time in history, people will be happy to see a rat in a building (but only after an earthquake, of course). ‎ ‎32. In the world earthquake capitals, rats will become man’s best friends because they can________. ‎ A. take the place of man’s rescue jobs B. serve as food for people alive who are trapped in buildings C. find the position of people alive who are trapped in buildings D. get into small spaces ‎ ‎33. From the third paragraph we know the rescuers can judge a person who is alive by________. ‎ A. the noise made by the rat B. the rat’s unusual behaviour C. the smell given off by the person D. the signal sent by the radio on the rat’s back ‎34. In doing rescue jobs, ________. ‎ A. rats smell better than dogs B. dogs don’t need to be trained to smell people C. rats can see in the dark and are smaller than robots D. robots’ sense of smell can be affected by other smells around ‎35. Rats have all the following advantages EXCEPT that______. ‎ A. they don’t need electricity B. they are less expensive to train than dogs C. they are more fantastic than other animals D. they are small and can get into small places 第二节（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分） ‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Five tips for safe running ‎ We all know that exercise is good for our health. But some kinds of exercise may be better than others. Running, for example, may help to protect against heart disease and other health problems. ‎ ‎ Running is good exercise, but it can be hard on the body. 36 ‎ Take it easy. Do not run too much, too soon or too fast. Most people get running injuries when they push themselves too bad. The body needs time to get used to increases in distance or speed.‎ ‎ 37 ‎ Listen to your body. Most running injuries do not come unexpectedly. 38 They may include body aches, sore muscles and pain that does not go away.‎ ‎ 39 There is no single best shoe for every runner. You should find the shoes that offer the best fit and support for your feet. More importantly, you should replace your shoes every 500 to 800 kilometers.‎ Take good notes. Take time after each run to write down what you did and how you felt. Look for patterns, things that happen over and over again. These notes ‎ will help you find the best exercise for you.‎ Cross train. As we said earlier, running is hard on your body. So physical fitness experts suggest some form of cross training to improve muscle balance and to help you stay injury free. They say swimming, yoga, and riding a bicycle are good exercises to combine with running. 40 ‎ A. Get good running shoes.‎ B. Usually, there are warning signs.‎ C. Running may also help you live longer.‎ D. These exercises are easier on the body.‎ E. Muscles and joints(关节) need time to recover.‎ F. As advertisements for the running shoes Nike say, “Just do it.”‎ G. Here are five ideas to reduce the risk of injury.‎ 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填人空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ My son Joey was born with club feet(畸形脚). The doctors told us that with treatment he would be able to walk normally, but would never 41 very well. The first three years of his life were 42 in surgery(手术). By the time he was eight, you wouldn’t know he had a 43 when you saw him walk. ‎ The children in our neighborhood ran around during their 44 , and Joey would jump right in, run and play, too. We 45 told him that he probably wouldn’t be able to run as 46 as the other children. So he didn’t know. ‎ In seventh grade he 47 to go out for the cross-country(越野) team. Every day he trained with the team. He worked harder and ran 48 than any of the others—perhaps he sensed that the 49 that seemed to come naturally to so many others did not come naturally to him. 50 the entire team runs, only the top seven runners have the chance to score points 51 the school. We didn’t tell him he probably would never make the team, so he didn’t know. ‎ ‎ He 52 to run four to five miles a day, every day —even the day he had a ‎ ‎103-degree fever. I was 53 , so I went to look for him after school. I found him running all alone. I asked him how he 54 . “Okay,” he said. He had two more 55 to go. The sweat ran down his face and his eyes were glassy（呆滞）from his fever. 56 he looked straight ahead and 57 running.‎ ‎ Two weeks later, the names of the team runners were 58 . Joey was number six on the list. Joey had made the team. He was in 59 grade —the other six team members were all eighth-graders. We never told him he shouldn’t 60 to make the team. We never told him he couldn’t do it… so he didn’t know. He just did it. ‎ ‎41.‎ A. walk B. jump C. cycle D. run ‎42.‎ A. wasted B. spent ‎ C. suffered ‎ D. lost ‎43.‎ A. problem ‎ B. disadvantage C. treatment D. shortcoming ‎44.‎ A. play ‎ B. holidays C. fun D. debate ‎45.‎ A. finally B. usually C. never D. always ‎ ‎46.‎ A. hard B. straight C. slowly D. well ‎47.‎ A. disagreed ‎ B. decided ‎ C. refused ‎ D. preferred ‎48.‎ A. better ‎ B. less C. more ‎ D. faster ‎49.‎ A. change B. ability ‎ C. energy ‎ D. power ‎50.‎ A. After B. Although C. Since D. Because ‎51.‎ A. for B. with C. on ‎ D. in ‎52.‎ A. stopped ‎ B. continued ‎ C. liked D. hoped ‎53.‎ A. calm B. amazed C. worried D. shocked ‎54.‎ A. felt B. suffered C. recovered D. survived ‎55.‎ A. miles B. examinations C. lessons D. tests ‎56.‎ A. So B. Yet C. And D. As if ‎57.‎ A. kept B. tried C. enjoyed D. escaped ‎58.‎ A. reported B. announced ‎ C. shown D. requested ‎59.‎ A. sixth B. eighth C. fifth D. seventh ‎ ‎60.‎ A. expect ‎ B. determine C. doubt ‎ D. devote 第二节（共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ ‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ English recognized as one of 61 most important languages is widely spoken as the first, second or a foreign language. Like the other major languages in the globe, English 62 (change) over time.‎ The language in the ancient time was quite different from 63 we speak at present. During AD 450, the English 64 (base) more on German than that of today. And later from AD 800 to 1150, the Danish and French rulers had a great influence 65 it, especially the vocabulary. As a result, by the 1600’s Shakespeare was able to make use of a wider vocabulary than ever before. From the 17th century the English people made voyages 66 (conquer) other parts of the world, during which English was spread to many other 67 (country) such as America and Australia. Later on in the 19th century, 68 was the dictionaries by Samuel Johnson and Noah Webster that standardized(使…标准化) the spelling , 69 made the language settled .‎ Generally, in the history of English, it changed frequently when cultures communicated with each other. So the road to modern English is 70 (actual) the communication between cultures.‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节：满分35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词斜线（＼）划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 ‎ 注意：1. 每处错误及修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎ 2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。‎ I worked as a home health nurse in a very poor city in Florida. I was often very kindly to my patients, especially the elderly. One Christmas Day as I were cooking Christmas dinner to my family, I thought of some elderly people. They were my patients which were always alone at home. So I decide to make more and deliver hot meals to them. I saw my two sons play in the house happily, but I made them stop. And I asked ‎ them help me pack and deliver these meals. As we took the food into our poor houses with no heat, they were very moving and we saw tears of joy in their eyes. My sons learned something of priceless.‎ 第二节 书面表达（满分25分）‎ 假定你是李华，得知你的英国朋友Peter打算在暑假去神农架森林公园徒步旅行，邀你同行，但你有事不能参加。请你给他写一封电子邮件，内容如下： ‎ 1. 表达歉意；‎ 2. 给他提醒一些注意事项,如请向导带路，保持通讯工具畅通等 注意：‎ ‎ 1. 词数100左右；‎ ‎2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ Dear Peter,‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ Yours, ‎ ‎ Li Hua 天门市2018-2019学年度高一年级11月考试 英语参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 听力（每小题1.5分，共30分）‎ ‎1-5 CACCB 6-10 ACCBA 11-15 BABBC 16-20 ACAAB 第二部分 阅读理解（每小题2分，共40分）‎ ‎21-23 ACB 24-27 DCAB 28-31 ABAD 32-35 CDDC 36-40 GEBAD 第三部分 语言知识运用（每小题1.5分，共45分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（每小题1.5分，共30分）‎ ‎41-45DBAAC 46-50DBCBB 51-55ABCAA 56-60BABDA 第二节 （每小题1.5分，共15分）‎ ‎61. the 62. has changed 63. what 64.was based 65.on ‎ ‎66.to conquer 67. countries 68. it 69.which 70. actually 第四部分 写作（共35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（每小题1分，共10分）‎ I worked as the home health nurse in a very poor city in Florida. I was often very kindly ‎ kind to my patients, especially the elderly. One Christmas Day as I were cooking Christmas dinner ‎ was to my family, I thought of some elderly people. They were my patients which were always alone at for who /that ‎ home. So I decide to make more and deliver hot meals to them. I saw my two sons play in the ‎ decided playing house happily, but I made them stop. And I asked them ∧ help me pack and deliver ‎ these meals.‎ ‎ to As we took the food into our poor houses with no heat, they were very moving and we saw tears their moved of joy in their eyes. My sons learned something of priceless.‎ 第二节 书面表达（25分）‎ Dear Peter,‎ ‎ How are you? Hearing that you are going hiking in the forest park of ShenNongjia, I have to say sorry that I can’t go with you because I’ve planned a trip abroad. But I think there is something important you should keep in mind during the hike.‎ ‎ Since it’s the first time for you to explore a primitive forest, I think you should have a guide keep you company, which is good for your safety. Besides, don’t forget to keep your mobile phone in service, and your family and friends can reach for you at any time. Be sure to take good care of yourself anyway.‎ ‎ Wish you a pleasant summer holiday.‎ ‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua 听力材料 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 做题时，先将答案划在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ Text1.‎ M: Come on, Mandy! It’s just 20 minutes’ walk to the cinema.‎ ‎ W: Give me a break! My legs are killing me. Let’s just call a taxi.‎ Text 2.‎ M: Hi, Mr Wang! Sorry, I failed your course again, but I really tried my best.‎ ‎ W: No one is sure to succeed every time. Cheer up! You will have more chances.‎ Text 3. ‎ W: Sir, could you please wait for another 20 minutes? We’ll serve you very soon.‎ ‎ M: Another 20 minutes? It was only 6 o’clock when I got here for dinner, but it’s 7:10 now. ‎ Text 4.‎ M: Hurry up! The show will start very soon. ‎ W: Take it easy. It’s 7:30 now. We still have 20 minutes to go there.‎ Text 5.‎ M: The bathroom looks lovely. Did you decorate it yourself again?‎ W: Yes, I went online and found some useful information. Then I bought everything I needed.‎ W: You must have saved a lot of money by doing it yourself.‎ M: Not really. But it was fun.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。‎ Text6 ‎ M: When are you going to take your vacation?‎ W: I am planning to take it at the end of this month. My husband and I haven’t had a chance to have a vacation over the past three years. So we are planning to travel to Europe this time. Has something come up?‎ M: Well, would it be too inconvenient for you to wait until next month?‎ W: Hm… not really. I guess I can put it off until next month. But I’ve got to talk about it with my husband.‎ M: Thank you very much. I really appreciate that.‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。‎ Text 7‎ W: Hello, What can I do for you?‎ M: I want two tickets for Swan Lake for the evening of the 15th.‎ W: The prices range from 1500yuan, 1200yuan, 800yuan to 500yuan. Which would you like?‎ M: Two tickets for 1200yuan, please.‎ W: Your name, home address and phone number.‎ M: Michael. I’m staying in Room 235 at Zhuyuan Hotel. My number is 18789276676.‎ W: Thank you. Your tickets will be sent to you around six o’clock this afternoon.‎ M: How much do you charge for sending my tickets?‎ W: 20 yuan.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ Text 8‎ W: Congratulations, Simon! It was quite an achievement! How do you feel about winning this dancing competition?‎ M: I’m proud. This is the first time I have won a dancing competition.‎ W: When did you become interested in dancing?‎ M: When I was 5 years old, my mom took me to a live dancing show. And I started to love it.‎ W: Did you take special dancing courses or did you just learn it by yourself afterwards?‎ M: Some special courses.‎ W: Did you also learn about music?‎ M: I learn the piano to support my skill. But I didn’t have too much time for ‎ it.‎ W: What was the hardest thing in your career?‎ M: My parents didn’t want me to be a dancer. I had to talk with them about it again and again.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ Text 9‎ W: What happened here?This place looks like a wild monkey got in!.‎ M: Well, while you were at the store, the kids decided to play a game in the house. W: Why didn’t you stop them? Where were you?‎ M:I had to answer a phone call! It was my boss, and I couldn’t end the conversation!‎ W: This will make me all day to clean up. Why were these papers all over the floor?‎ M: The cat ran on the desk to get away from the kids, which is why they are on the floor. He didn’t knock the lamp but he knocked over the glass of juice. ‎ W: Kids! Get down here and help us clean up, or you can never play games inside again!‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ Text 10‎ Hello, my name is Jone Williams, I am an English teacher, and I have started a website to help you improve English listening and speaking skills as quickly as possible. My online English lessons take just 5-10 minutes each day to complete. And there are no advertisements to take your attention away. You can also download the sound files to your computer and access them and take your lessons again when you are not free at my time. I’ve designed the online English courses to be a very easy, cheap and quick way to improve your English speaking, listening and conversation skills, and also to improve your listening scores in English exams. ‎ ‎ I always make sure my online English lessons are short, interesting and easy to remember. My idea of learning English is that it is best for you to learn a little each day and remember it clearly.‎