2019学年高一英语上学期期末联考试题 新版-人教版

2019学年高一英语上学期期末联考试题 新版-人教版

‎2019年秋期末联考 高一英语 ‎（全卷满分：150分 考试用时：120分钟）‎ 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。考试时间120分钟，满分150分。(请注意：答案一律填涂或书写在专用答题卡上，选择题用2B铅笔填涂，书面表达题用黑色笔书写，否则无效)‎ 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)‎ 第一节 ‎(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. What was the weather like during the woman’s holiday?‎ ‎ A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cloudy.‎ ‎2. Where is the woman’s niece standing in the picture？‎ ‎ A. On the right of Tim.‎ B. On the left of Tim. ‎ C. On the left of Ann.‎ ‎3. What does the man probably think of the woman?‎ ‎ A. Naughty. B. Kind-hearted. C. Careless.‎ ‎4. What will the man probably eat first？‎ ‎ A. An apple. B. Some vegetables. C. A chocolate cake.‎ ‎5. Which part of the factory does the man want to change？‎ ‎ A. The packing area.‎ B. The production line. ‎ C. The storage room.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题,‎ - 17 -‎ ‎ 每小题5秒钟；听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 请听每6段材料，回答6、7题。‎ ‎6. Why will the man go to Shanghai？‎ ‎ A. To accompany his boss.‎ B. To take a business trip. ‎ C. To see some old friends.‎ ‎7. What day is it today？‎ ‎ A. Thursday. B. Friday. C. Saturday.‎ 请听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。‎ ‎8. Why did Henry call the man？‎ ‎ A. To ask him to play football. ‎ B. To introduce some friends to him. ‎ C. To tell him the result of a job interview.‎ ‎9. What will the man do next？‎ ‎ A. Go outdoors. B. Call Henry back. C. Take a shower.‎ 请听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. What was the man’s opinion about the film？‎ ‎ A. It was funny. ‎ B. It was frightening. ‎ C. It was boring.‎ ‎11. Who did the speakers think acted well？‎ ‎ A. Roger Gale.‎ B. Matt Damon. ‎ C. Jude Law.‎ ‎12. How many marks would the woman give the film？‎ ‎ A. Six. ‎ B. Seven. ‎ C. Eight.‎ 请听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. How long did the man stay in Hawaii？‎ - 17 -‎ A. For two days. ‎ B. For one week. ‎ C. For two weeks.‎ ‎14. What was the man’s first problem？‎ ‎ A. The bus broke down on the way.‎ ‎ B. The hotel was noisy at night.‎ ‎ C. The room was not cleaned.‎ ‎15. What does the man ask to do in the end？‎ ‎ A. Give a discount. ‎ B. See the manager. ‎ C. Move to another room.‎ ‎16. Where does the conversation probably take place？‎ ‎ A. At a hotel. ‎ B. At a restaurant. ‎ C. At a travel agency.‎ 请听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. Where did the fire take place？‎ ‎ A. On Central Street. ‎ B. On Oxford Street. ‎ C. On East Street.‎ ‎18. Why is the traffic on Hampton Road moving slowly?‎ ‎ A. A lion is sitting in the middle of the road.‎ ‎ B. A big crowd is standing in front of the cars.‎ ‎ C. Some are driving on the wrong side of the road.‎ ‎19. What kind of program will come after this report？‎ ‎ A. Wild animals. ‎ B. International news. ‎ C. Weather forecast.‎ ‎20. What time is it now probably？‎ ‎ A. 10:00. B. 11:00. C.12:00.‎ - 17 -‎ 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)‎ 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中，选出最佳选项。‎ A Health Coach Active Nutrition Centers need full-time health coaches interested in providing and developing programs focused on education, nutrition and health. Previous experience is needed.‎ The Interview Time:‎ ‎①Wednesday, Thursday and Sunday from 10 am to 8 pm;‎ ‎②Monday, Friday and Saturday from 10 am to 10 pm.‎ Please call Shawn Campbell at 517-2253852 or emailawittmann@dialamerica.com.‎ Marketing Manager We want to find a full-time marketing manager who must be a citizen or permanent resident of the US. Job duties include collecting and designing applications.‎ Job Requirements:‎ ‎①Six years of management consulting experience;‎ ‎②Ability to speak publicly at our customer events.‎ Please contact Nicole at 517-8890743 or emailhrnetwork@hotmail.com.‎ Swimming Coach The Village St. George Water Moccasins is looking for a coach for their summer swimming team. The position is part-time, from mid-May through July. The coach must be available on weekday mornings and evenings during May, and Thursdays for swim meets.‎ The ideal candidate will have swimming team coaching experience. Contact Jack at 517-8847839 or emailvsgac@yahoo.com.‎ Material Manager We are looking for two full-time managers to watch over materials. A bachelor’s degree is required for full-time management. Training is provided. We are willing to consider someone close to completing his degree.‎ If interested, call Al Pittman at 517-8358194 or emailctitus@dialamerica.com.‎ - 17 -‎ ‎21. Which job doesn’t require work experience, according to the text? ‎ ‎ A. Health Coach. ‎ B. Marketing Manager. ‎ ‎ C. Material Manager.‎ D. Swimming Coach.             ‎ ‎22. Applicants can be interviewed at Active Nutrition Centers at ___________ .       ‎ ‎ A. 8 am on Monday. ‎ B. 11 am on Friday. ‎ ‎ C. 10 pm on Sunday.  ‎ D. 9 am on Saturday. ‎ ‎23. If you want to find a part-time job you can call ___________ .        ‎ ‎ A. 517-8890743. ‎ B. 517-2253852 . ‎ C. 517-8358194. ‎ D. 517-8847839. ‎ ‎24. If you have seven years of work experience in management and are good at speaking in public you can contact  ________. ‎ ‎ A. Shawn Campbell B. Nicole. ‎ C. Jack.                       D. Al Pittman.‎ B In the early 1900s, Carol Ryrie Brink lived with her grandmother Caddie on a tiny farm in Idaho. The farm was a great place to live. Besides wonderful tall climbing trees, it had cats and chickens and a horse, which she rode all over the countryside and through the streets of town.‎ Even so, Carol was sometimes lonely. She would climb to the top of her favorite tree and make up stories to cheer herself up. The favorite part of her day was when Grandmother Caddie would sit with her and tell stories about the adventures she and her brothers had.‎ Carol loved the stories so much that when she grew up, she decided to write a - 17 -‎ ‎ book about them. Thousands of children throughout the world have read and loved Caddie Woodlawn. Carol’s book won a special award called the Newbery Medal. Each year only one children’s book is chosen to win this award.‎ Carol said it was her son and daughter who inspired her to write for children. That wasn’t easy when she was busy taking care of a family. Sometimes an idea would come to her while she was washing the supper dishes. She would make a quick note and come back to write it out more fully after her children were asleep.‎ Carol wrote 27 books in her life, many of which are about her life in Idaho. Besides the Newbery Medal, She won many more awards. Later when another author Mary Reed wrote a book about Carol Ryrie Brink, she summed up(概括) Carol’s life by saying, “She tried to live in a way that would not harm others, never to waste a day, and to make good use of her life.”‎ ‎25. When she felt lonely on the farm, Carol would _______.‎ A. ride a horse to the town.‎ B. ask her grandmother to read her a story.‎ C. climb all the tall trees.‎ D. make herself happy with her own stories.‎ ‎26. What do we know about Caddie Woodlawn?‎ A. It is an award-winning book.‎ B. It is about Carol’s adventures C. It is unpopular among children.‎ D. It is one of Carol’s childhood works.‎ ‎27. It can be inferred from Paragraph 4 that Carol_______.‎ A. once gave up writing because of the heavy housework. ‎ B. had a hard time in the early days of her writing. ‎ C. didn’t get any understanding from her family.‎ D. didn’t earn much from her writing.‎ ‎28. Mary Reed’s words suggest____.‎ A. she considers Carol a great mother.‎ B. we should be friendly to others.‎ - 17 -‎ C. she thinks highly of Carol.‎ D. we should make full use of our time.‎ C I am a taxi driver. One Monday morning, I had stopped at New York Hospital when I found a well-dressed man coming over. He was waving to me. I waited until he jumped into the taxi. “La Guardia Airport, please,” he said.‎ As always, I wondered about my passenger. “What do you do?” “I am working at the hospital.” For some unknown reason, I decided to ask for his help. ‎ ‎     “Could I ask a favor of you?” He didn’t answer. “I have a son, 16. He’s doing well in school. He wants a job this summer. Is there any possibility that you might get him a summer job?” After a minute, he said, “The medical students have a research project. Maybe he could fit in. Have him send me his school records.” He searched his pocket and handed me a card. ‎ ‎     That evening, I pulled the card from my pocket. “Robbie,” I said proudly, “This could be a summer job for you. Send him your school records.” He read it out loud, “Fred Plum, New York Hospital.” “Is this a joke?” he said in doubt. After I shouted and threatened (恐吓) to cut off his pocket-money, Robbie promised to send off his grades the next morning. ‎ ‎     Two weeks later, when I arrived home, my son handed me a letter from Plum. He was to phone Plum’s secretary for an interview. ‎ ‎     Robbie got the job. The white coat he wore made him feel more important than he really was. As high school graduation neared, Plum was kind enough to write letters of recommendation (推荐) for universities. At last, Robbie was admitted to New York Medical College. ‎ ‎     It never happened to me that a stranger should change my son’s future.    ‎ ‎29. The author threatened to cut off Robbie’s pocket-money probably because _________. ‎ ‎ A. he was tired after a day’s work. ‎ ‎ B. he didn’t earn enough money. ‎ ‎ C. Robbie was unwilling to work.‎ - 17 -‎ ‎ D. Robbie didn’t believe what he said. ‎ ‎30. It can be inferred from the passage that Plum is _________. ‎ A. patient and selfless. ‎ B. generous and careful. ‎ C. kind and helpful. ‎ D. wealthy and handsome. ‎ ‎31. What message does the passage want to tell us? ‎ ‎ A. A stranger may change your life. ‎ ‎ B. One must be friendly to strangers. ‎ ‎ C. A father should be responsible for his son. ‎ ‎ D. Doctors may have a great effect on people.‎ D Teenagers who spend hours in front of the television may have a poorer diet as young adults.‎ A study, which included nearly 1,400 high school students, found those who watched TV for five hours or more every day had less healthy diets than peers(同龄人)five years later. Why does this happen? Should the parents take any measures?‎ On the one hand, people who spend a lot of time in front of the TV, especially teenagers, may snack more, and that may affect their long-term diet quality.‎ On the other hand, TV ads for fast food, sweets and snacks cause teenagers to eat more of those foods. And TV time might also replace exercise time for some kids.‎ Lead researcher Dr. Dahcia J. Barr-Anderson, of the University of Minnesota in Minneapolis, told Reuters Health a clear relation between TV time during high school and diet quality in young adulthood. While the heaviest TV viewers were eating the most junk food, those who’d watched less than two hours per day had the highest intake(吸收) of fruits, vegetables, whole grains and high-calcium food. In her opinion, parents should limit and monitor TV viewing.‎ As far as I am concerned, children should watch no more than two hours of television per day. And parents should set a good example by eating right, being physically active and curbing their own TV time.‎ - 17 -‎ ‎32. What’s the best title for this passage? ‎ A. People should keep away from TV to keep healthy.‎ B. Teenagers’ TV time may affect their diets later.‎ C. Why do teenagers like TV.‎ D. Parents’ own habits may affect children later.‎ ‎33. According to the passage, heavy TV viewers are easy to___________.‎ ‎ A. eat more fruits.‎ B. eat fewer vegetables. ‎ ‎ C. eat less junk food.‎ D. eat high-calcium food.‎ ‎34. What suggestion does the author give the parents?‎ ‎ A. They must watch TV with their children.‎ ‎ B. They should stop the children from watching TV.‎ ‎ C. They should pay attention to nutrition in diets.‎ ‎ D. They can’t do what they don’t want their children to do.‎ ‎35. The underlined word “curbing” in the last paragraph can be replaced by___________.‎ ‎ A. adding B. checking C. controlling D. stopping 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分1 0分)‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填人空白处的最佳选项，有两项为多余选项。‎ Sleep advice for kids of all ages It is important for each child to get enough sleep every day. Here we will learn more about that.‎ How much sleep does a child need?‎ ‎ 36 Newborns 0 to 3 months should sleep 10 to 18 hours a day. Babies 4 to 11 months should start to sleep through the night, for 9 to 12 hours at a time. Toddlers(初学走路的孩子) 1 to 2 years need about 11 to 14 hours a day. Children 3 to 5 should get 11 to 13 hours a night. 37 Teenagers 14 and up need 8 to 10 hours of sleep.‎ - 17 -‎ What can parents do?‎ Set a strict nap(小睡) timetable. 38 Even older children can benefit from late-afternoon naps if they are not getting enough sleep at night. But keep them short--- 30 minutes at most.‎ ‎ 39 Remember to ask your children to turn off the television and the computer an hour before bed. If possible, get them out of your child’s bedroom since the light from electronic screens can make sleep a difficult job.‎ Get them moving. 40 Running around and playing sports is great, but kids can be active in other ways, too. Take the dog for a walk, or go to the park --- just get them out of the house and get them moving.‎ A. Pay attention to screen time.‎ B. It usually depends on their age.‎ C. It’s OK to go to bed 30 minutes later.‎ D. Kids 6 to 13 need 9 to 11 hours of sleep.‎ E. Younger children should take a short sleep during the day.‎ F. Energy drinks can keep kids from falling or staying asleep.‎ G. Exercise during the day helps children sleep better at night.‎ 第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节，满分45分)‎ 第一节 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分) ‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中，选出可以填人空白处的最佳选项。‎ A few years ago the company I work for sent my wife and me to live in New York for a year. I have always loved 41 in the morning, so I was really 42 when I found out the house they had bought for us was next to Central Park. This meant that every 43 I could go for a run before I went to work.‎ ‎ 44 a lot of people had told me to be careful of robbers in the park, I didn’t usually take anything with me. How could they 45 me if I didn’t have anything? But this one morning my wife asked me to 46 some bread on the way home so I put a $10 note in my back pocket.‎ While I was running through the 47 ,another runner nearly knocked me over. He ‎ - 17 -‎ apologized and 48 running. I thought it was a little 49 so I checked my 50 and found that the money was missing. I 51 started to run after him. I 52 caught up and caught him by the arm. I started 53 and demanding that he give me the $10. I’m not 54 a hot-headed person but I really lost my temper. This seemed to 55 him and he quickly put his hand into his pocket and 56 me the money. Then he ran away as 57 as he could.‎ I bought the 58 and went home. As soon as I got there I began to tell my wife my 59 . “You won’t believe what happened to me,” I started. She immediately 60 me, “I know, you left the money for the bread on the kitchen table.”‎ 41. A. studying B. running C. working D. reading ‎ 42. A. hopeless B. nervous C. upset D. happy 43. A. morning B. afternoon C. evening D. night 44. A. Unless B. Though C. As if D. Because 45. A. charge B. remove C. rob D. cheat 46. A. borrow B. taste C. buy D. eat 47. A. school B. park C. office D. house 48. A. continued B. practiced C. stopped D. started 49. A. different B. strange C. dangerous D. harmful 50. A. hat B. purse C. pocket D. bag 51. A. suddenly B. calmly C. actually D. immediately ‎ 52. A. finally B. nearly C. possibly D. hopefully 53. A. smelling B. shouting C. explaining D. asking - 17 -‎ 41. A. simply B. secretly C. usually D. especially 42. A. anger B. surprise C. hurt D. frighten ‎ 43. A. paid B. gave C. showed D. lent 44. A. fast B. early C. far D. safely 45. A. clothes B. milk C. bread D. newspaper 46. A. meeting B. story C. job D. holiday 47. A. broke in B. watched over C. dealt with D. cared about 第Ⅱ卷 第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节，满分45分)‎ 第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ A woman suddenly 61 (go) blind in one eye after playing a mobile phone game for a whole week in Guangdong province last month. The unnamed woman admitted to playing the game 62 (usual) for seven or eight hours without moving and finally lost 63 (she) right eyesight.‎ The game, Arena of Valor, which 64 (know) as Honor of Kings, has become hugely popular in China and is due to be limited across the US and Europe. Being 65 world’s most popular online battle game, it already has over 200 million players in China.‎ The battle game puts together a team of five players 66 have to fight others in a wonderful land filled 67 characters , and players can buy extra features while playing. The eye injury follows a number of 68 (incident). In June, a child in Shenzhen stole 30,000 yuan (£3,450) from his parents to buy equipment, and a 13-year-old in Hangzhou, severely injured his legs after jumping from a five-storey building to escape from his father was trying to stop him from 69 (play). In a country in which 60 percent of the population has a smart-phone, the game has been - 17 -‎ ‎ highly 70 (success), partly because it is free to play.‎ 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)‎ 第一节 短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎ 2．只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。‎ Last Sunday we visited a fruit-picking garden. It lie to the south of the city, about 20 kilometers away. We gathered at the school gate eight o’clock and went there by a bike. When we arrived, the farmers gave us a warmly welcome. What glad we were to see the fruits and vegetable grow so well. The plants seemed to wave your hands to say good morning to us. The farmers told us that all the fruits and vegetables were planting in the organic way without fertilizer(化肥). We picked some apples and tomatoes, that cost us 30 yuan. We enjoyed the beautiful view of nature, but we also breathed fresh air.‎ 第二节：书面表达 （满分25分）‎ 假设你是李华，你的英国笔友Amy来信说她每逢重要考试都会倍感焦虑。请你给她回一封信，内容主要包括：1.表示理解并给予安慰；‎ ‎2.提出具体建议(对考试持正确的态度，考前保证充足的睡眠，多做户外运动来放松身心)。‎ 注意：1.词数100左右；‎ ‎ 2.可适当添加细节，以使行文连贯；‎ ‎ 3.开头和结尾以给出，但不计入总词数。‎ Dear Amy，‎ I’m sorry to hear that you feel rather nervous whenever you’re taking any - 17 -‎ ‎ important exam.____________‎ ‎__________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎ I hope you will find my suggestions helpful.‎ ‎ Yours,‎ ‎ Li Hua ‎2019年秋期末联考 高一英语参考答案 选择题：1~20听力（每小题1.5分）；20~40阅读理解（每小题2分）；41~60完形填空（每小题1.5分）。‎ ‎1‎ ‎2‎ ‎3‎ ‎4‎ ‎5‎ ‎6‎ ‎7‎ ‎8‎ ‎9‎ ‎10‎ ‎11‎ ‎12‎ ‎13‎ ‎14‎ ‎15‎ ‎16‎ ‎17‎ ‎18‎ ‎19‎ ‎20‎ C B C A C B B C C A C A B A B C A A B A ‎21‎ ‎22‎ ‎23‎ ‎24‎ ‎25‎ ‎26‎ ‎27‎ ‎28‎ ‎29‎ ‎30‎ ‎31‎ ‎32‎ ‎33‎ ‎34‎ ‎35‎ ‎36‎ ‎37‎ ‎38‎ ‎39‎ ‎40‎ C B D B D A B C D C A B B D C B D E A G ‎41‎ ‎42‎ ‎43‎ ‎44‎ ‎45‎ ‎46‎ ‎47‎ ‎48‎ ‎49‎ ‎50‎ ‎51‎ ‎52‎ ‎53‎ ‎54‎ ‎55‎ ‎56‎ ‎57‎ ‎58‎ ‎59‎ ‎60‎ B D A D C C B A B C D A B C D B A C B A ‎ ‎ 语法填空 (共10题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)‎ ‎61. went 考查动词谓语,后面last month,用过去时.‎ ‎62. usually 考查副词 ,修饰动作playing ‎63. her 考查人称代词 她的右眼 ‎64. is known 考查定语从句中的谓语动词, be known as ‎65. the 考查冠词The world’s most popular ,最高级前加the ‎66. who 考查定语从句引导词,指前面players - 17 -‎ ‎67. with 考查介词 be filled with 做后置定语 ‎68. incidents 考查名词单复数, series of +名词复数 ‎69. playing 考查非谓语动词，stop sb. from doing sth ‎70. successful 考查形容词,successful作表语,游戏取得高度成功.‎ 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ ‎71. lie 改为lies 72. eight o’clock 前加at ‎73. by a bike 去掉 a 74. warmly 改为warm ‎ ‎75. What 改为How （小写无分） 76. vegetable 改为vegetables ‎77. your 改为their 78. planting 改为planted ‎ ‎79. that 改为which 80. but 改为 and 书面表达（ 共25分）‎ Dear Amy,‎ ‎ I’m sorry to hear that you feel rather nervous whenever you’re taking any important exam. Most of us have such bad times, so don’t worry too much about it. I’d like to offer you some useful tips.‎ ‎ First, It’s important to have a right attitude towards exams. They help you check how you are getting along with your studies, so the results are not the most important. If you study hard and make careful plans for every exam, you can be more confident. Second, getting enough sleep can make you energetic so that you can perform well in an exam. Therefore, you should not stay up too late. Finally, you can do some outdoor exercises to keep yourself relaxed before an exam.‎ ‎ I hope you will find my suggestions helpful.‎ ‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua ‎★2017年全国新课标卷高考（英语作文）评分标准(细则)‎ - 17 -‎ ‎【第五档】(很好)：(21~25分)‎ ‎      1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎      2.覆盖所有内容要点。‎ ‎      3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。‎ ‎      4.语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。‎ ‎      5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。‎ ‎      6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ ‎【第四档】(好)：(16~20分)‎ ‎      1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎      2.虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。‎ ‎      3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。‎ ‎      4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。‎ ‎      5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。‎ ‎      6.达到了预期的写作目的。‎ ‎【第三档】(适当)：(11~15分)‎ ‎      1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎      2.虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。‎ ‎      3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。‎ ‎      4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。‎ ‎      5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。‎ ‎      6.整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ ‎【第二档】(较差)：(6-10分)‎ ‎      1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎      2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。‎ ‎      3.语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。‎ ‎      4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。‎ ‎      5.较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。‎ ‎      6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。‎ - 17 -‎ ‎【第一档】(差)：(1~5分)‎ ‎      1.未完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎      2.明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。‎ ‎      3.语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。‎ ‎      4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。‎ ‎      5.缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。‎ ‎      6.信息未能传达给读者。‎ ‎【不得分：(0分)‎ - 17 -‎