崇明区2019届高三二模英语试题

崇明区2019届高三二模英语试题

崇明区2019届高考二模英语 ‎（考试时间120分钟，满分140分。请将答案填写在答题纸上）‎ I. Listening Comprehension Section A Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.‎ ‎1. A. A pilot. B. An airhost. C. A passenger. D. A taxi driver.‎ ‎2. A. In a bank. B. In a hotel. C. In a clinic. D. In a university.‎ ‎3. A. Order for the man. B. Recalculate the bill.‎ C. Refuse to pay the bill. D. Give the man a discount.‎ ‎4. A. He forgot about the football game. B. He can’t endure the loud noise from the game.‎ C. He thought the game was disappointing. D. He doesn’t think football games make any sense.‎ ‎5. A. She’d like the man to touch the report for her.‎ B. She’s already finished her report on the movie.‎ C. She’ll be unable to see the movie with the man.‎ ‎ D. She prefers a different type of movie to a comedy.‎ ‎6. A. He’s got an extra train schedule. B. He’s going to Philadelphia by train.‎ C. He’s already missed his train. D. He’s familiar with the train station.‎ ‎7. A. He’s satisfied with his job. B. He’s got trouble finding a job.‎ ‎ C. He likes working in hot summer. D. He gets more pay than expected.‎ ‎8. A. The man and the woman did the research together.‎ ‎ B. The woman didn’t work hard enough on her paper.‎ ‎ C. The professor was content with the woman’s paper.‎ ‎ D. The paper wasn’t as good as the woman had thought.‎ ‎9. A. She’ll consider the man’s invitation. B. She doesn’t want to join a gardening club.‎ ‎ C. She doesn’t have time to work in a garden. D. She’s never been formally invited into a club.‎ ‎10. A. He won’t vote for the woman. ‎ B. He may also run for class president.‎ ‎ C. The woman shouldn’t have asked him for his vote. ‎ D. The woman should ask his roommate to vote for her.‎ Section B Directions: In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of them. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.‎ Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following passage.‎ ‎11. A. Crows are particularly clever birds. B. Crows have been trained to work for a park.‎ ‎ C. Crows are popular with theme parks. D. Crows have long been seen as symbols of evil.‎ ‎12. A. Collecting garbage. B. Giving gifts to visitors.‎ ‎ C. Using various tools. D. Remembering visitors’ faces.‎ ‎13. A. To show visitors can be more careful to keep the park clean. ‎ B. To train more crows to clear up the park in a more rapid way.‎ ‎ C. To communicate with crows and establish a relationship with them.‎ ‎ D. To indicate humans can learn from nature to protect the environment.‎ Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following passage.‎ ‎14. A. To save space. B. To reach for the sky. C. To attract tourists. D. To be seen miles away.‎ ‎15. A. They fail to inspire the culture. B. They threaten the city’s development.‎ ‎ C. They have rather odd nicknames. D. They make old landmarks hard to see.‎ ‎16. A. Skyscrapers are usually ugly. B. The Shard is the world’s tallest building.‎ ‎ C. London’s upward expansion is continuing. D. London’s replaced office blocks with high-rises.‎ Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation.‎ ‎17. A. The expansion of the cafeteria. B. The cost of meals in the cafeteria.‎ ‎ C. The food served in the cafeteria. D. The job opportunities in the cafeteria.‎ ‎18. A. Cooking food for the students. B. Serving food for the students.‎ ‎ C. Improving meals’ nutritional value. D. Listening to complaints about service.‎ ‎19. A. To give nutrition lessons to students.‎ ‎ B. To collect students’ opinions about meals.‎ ‎ C. To find more students to work in the cafeteria.‎ ‎ D. To ask students to try a new dish she has made.‎ ‎20. A. A little curious. B. Very amazed.‎ ‎ C. Quite confused. D. A bit doubtful.‎ II. Grammar and Vocabulary Section A Directions: After reading the passage below, fill in the blanks to make the passage coherent and grammatically correct. For the blanks with a given word, fill in each blank with the proper form of the given word; for the other blanks, use one word that best fits each blank.‎ New “Star Wars” Attractions Set to Open at Disney Theme Parks in 2019‎ The galaxy (银河系) that seems so far, far away just got a little closer.‎ On Tuesday, Disney announced “Star Wars: Galaxy’s Edge”, a highly (21) (expect) themed land under construction, would open in summer 2019 at California’s Disneyland and in late fall 2019 at Florida’s Disney World.‎ ‎(22) the announcement was made, officials had only said the new land would open soon.‎ No specific date (23) (announce) for the Disneyland opening. But if past summer openings are any indication, “Galaxy’s Edge” is expected to open in late June.‎ The additions will be Disney’s (24) (big) “single-themed land expansion” ever, according to Disney CEO Bob Iger. Each will be an expansive 14 acres (英亩). A copy of the Millennium Falcon spaceship, (25) guests will be able to pilot, will be a key attraction.‎ Galaxy’s Edge will immerse (使沉浸于) visitors in the Star Wars universe, (26) (transport) them to a never-before-seen Star Wars planet—a remote trading port largely ignored by warring people and one of the last stops before wild space. This planet is (27) Star Wars characters and their stories will come to life. It will feature two major attractions: (28) allowing guests to pilot the Millennium Falcon and the other dropping riders into the middle of a battle. The most advanced video techniques are expected to power each attraction.‎ Even as Galaxy’s Edge (29) (approach), Disneyland is making changes, both large and small, in advance. Recent projects have shifted queues for “Dumbo the Flying Elephant” and “It’s a Small World”. These are the efforts to improve traffic flows near the attractions. Similar changes have been made in Adventureland (30) (ease) congestion points. Work has started on a new luxury resort in Downtown Disney. Officials have closed Rainforest Café, ESPN Zone and AMC Theaters to make room.‎ Section B Directions: After reading the passage below, fill in each blank with a proper word given in the box. Each word can only be used once. Note that there is one word more than you need. ‎ A. sign B. wreck C. scheduled ‎ D. inappropriate ‎ E. exact F. initiative G. tragedy H. repeat ‎ I. categorized J. accommodated K. unclear Titanic II Could Sail as Soon as 2022‎ If you thought the long-delayed project to launch a full-size copy of the ill-fated Royal Mail Ship Titanic was sunk in the water—think again. Just like Celine Dion sang back in 1997, the travel project will “go on and on.”‎ Australian businessman and politician Clive Palmer, who is behind the 31 , announced in September that work on the ship had started again. The idea was first floated in 2012. It is said that the new ship will be a(n) 32 copy of the infamous ship, which sank in 1912 following a crash with an iceberg (冰山).‎ To avoid a(n) 33 disaster, Titanic II will apparently be equipped with plenty of life boats, modern navigation (导航) and radar equipment. The first voyage, however, will take passengers from Dubai to New York, reports CruiseArabia, with the first sailing 34 to take place in 2022. Blue Star Line says the nine-decked ship will be home to 835 cabins, and 2,435 passengers will be 35 . You’ll be able to buy first-, second- and third-class tickets—just like in the original.‎ Meanwhile tourists with plenty of money might soon have the chance to dive to the 36 of the original Titanic. American company OceanGate has planned diving trips for 2019, costing $105,129 per person.‎ Of course, the original Titanic voyage ended in 37 , with over 1,500 people losing their lives. For many, voyages to the original ship are in bad taste. Steve Sims, founder of The Bluefish, said earlier in 2018 that he doesn’t see diving to the original one as 38 .‎ Realistically, it’s 39 whether Titanic II will ever see the light of day—or whether the diving tours will happen soon. But one thing is for certain, more than 100 years after the Titanic’s first and only voyage, global interest in this ship shows no 40 of slowing down.‎ III. Reading Comprehension Section A Directions: For each blank in the following passage there are four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context.‎ ‎Lying in a Foreign Language Is Easier Most people don’t find it more difficult to lie in a foreign language than in their native tongue. However, things are different when telling the truth: This is clearly more difficult for many people in a foreign language than in their native one.‎ This 41 conclusion is the result of a study conducted by two psychologists from the University of Würzburg: Kristina Suchotzki and Matthias Gamer. The two scientists presented their ‎ 42 in Journal of Experimental Psychology.‎ Their findings could be important for a lot of processes in which the trustworthiness of certain people must be 43 . In such situations, reports by non-native speakers tend to be considered as less ‎ 44 even though they may be truthful. Their discovery also explains another 45 , namely that people communicating in a foreign language are generally considered as less trustworthy.‎ There are two research 46 to predict differences between deception and truth telling in a native compared to a second language.‎ Research from cognitive (认知的) load theory suggests that lying is more difficult in a foreign language. “Compared to truth telling, lying is a cognitively more 47 task,” Kristina Suchotzki explains. Adding a foreign language imposes an additional cognitive 48 which makes lying even more difficult.‎ Lying is easier in a foreign language: This should be true according to the emotional distance hypothesis (假设). This assumption is based on the fact that lying is 49 more emotions than staying with the truth. Liars have higher stress levels and are more tense. Research shows that compared to speaking in a native language, communicating in a second language is less 50 ‎ arousing. Accordingly, this 51 emotional arousal would promote lying.‎ To settle this question, the Würzburg psychologists conducted a number of experiments in which up to 50 test persons had to complete specific tasks. They were asked to answer a number of questions—sometimes 52 and sometimes deceptively both in their native language and in a foreign language. Some questions were 53 ; other questions were clearly emotional.‎ The results show that it usually takes longer to answer emotional questions. Answers in the foreign language also take longer. And generally, it takes longer to tell a lie than to tell the truth. However, the time differences between deceptive and truthful answers are less 54 in a second language than in the native language. ‎ The data suggest that the increased cognitive effort is responsible for the prolongation (延长) of the truth 55 in the foreign language. The reason why this prolongation almost does not exist in lying can be explained with the emotional distance hypothesis: The greater emotional distance in a foreign language thus “cancels out” the higher cognitive load when lying.‎ ‎41. A. similar B. unexpected C. disappointing D. inevitable ‎42. A. insights B. principles C. expectations D. justifications ‎43. A. classified B. substituted C. modified D. evaluated ‎44. A. accurate B. believable C. sensitive D. informative ‎45. A. reason B. difference C. origin D. phenomenon ‎46. A. results B. methods C. theories D. questions ‎47. A. inviting B. embarrassing C. rewarding D. demanding ‎ ‎48. A. challenge B. perspective C. strategy D. context ‎49. A. aimed at B. prepared for C. associated with D. applied to ‎50. A. emotionally B. alternatively C. fundamentally D. suspiciously ‎51. A. advanced B. reduced C. adapted D. altered ‎52. A. directly B. confidently C. truthfully D. initially ‎53. A. tough B. concrete C. irrelevant D. neutral ‎54. A. appealing B. obvious C. important D. reasonable ‎55. A. claim B. element C. commission D. response Section B Directions: Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage you have just read.‎ ‎（A）‎ In a career that lasted more than half a century, Tom Wolfe wrote fiction and nonfiction best-sellers including The Electric Kool-Aid Acid Test and The Bonfire of the Vanities. Along the way, he created a new type of journalism and coined phrases that became part of the American vocabulary. ‎ Wolfe began working as a newspaper reporter, first for The Washington Post, then the New York Herald Tribune. He developed a literary style in nonfiction that became known as the “New Journalism.” “I’ve always agreed on a theoretical level that the techniques for fiction and nonfiction are interchangeable,” he said. “The things that work in nonfiction would work in fiction, and vice versa.”‎ ‎“When Tom Wolfe’s voice broke into the world of nonfiction, it was a time when a lot of writers, and a lot of artists in general, were turning inwards,” says Lev Grossman, book critic for Time magazine. “Wolfe didn’t do that. Wolfe turned outwards. He was a guy who was interested in other people.” Wolfe was interested in how they thought, how they did things and how the things they did affected the world around them.‎ In 1979, Wolfe published The Right Stuff, an account of the military test pilots who became America’s first astronauts. Four years later, the book was adapted as a feature film. “The Right Stuff was the book for me,” says Grossman. “It reminded me, in case I’d forgotten, that the world is an incredible place.”‎ In The Right Stuff, Wolfe popularized the phrase “pushing the envelope.” In a New York magazine article, Wolfe described the 1970s as “The ‘Me’ Decade.” Grossman says these phrases became part of the American idiom because they were accurate.‎ ‎“He was an enormously forceful observer, and he was not afraid of making strong claims about what was happening in reality,” Grossman says. “He did it well and people heard him. And they repeated what he said because he was right.” All those words started a revolution in nonfiction that is still going on.‎ ‎56. The “New Journalism” is a style of journalism that .‎ ‎ A. changes its news writing techniques frequently ‎ ‎ B. popularizes new American idioms in a literary way ‎ C. combines novelistic techniques with traditional reporting ‎ D. reports various news events from a theoretical perspective ‎57. It can be learned from the passage that The Right Stuff .‎ ‎ A. is a film directed by Lev Grossman B. is an influential book by Tom Wolfe ‎ C. accounts for popular American phrases D. deals with incredible places in the world ‎58. According to the passage, Tom Wolfe .‎ ‎ A. was good at reporting news from a realistic perspective ‎ ‎ B. preferred making claims about events to writing books ‎ ‎ C. was fond of commenting on other people’s thoughts ‎ D. liked analyzing social problems from the outside ‎59. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?‎ ‎ A. Tom Wolfe: A Professional Phrase Coiner ‎ B. Tom Wolfe: A Forceful Observer and Novelist ‎ C. Tom Wolfe: A Theoretical Creator in Literature ‎ D. Tom Wolfe: An Innovative Journalist and Writer ‎（B）‎ ‎ ‎ Important facts about ELIQUIS® (apixaban)‎ This is a summary of important information that you need to know about ELIQUIS. Keep this document in a safe place, so you can refer to it before and during your treatment.‎ Look out for the following signs as you read:‎ Do not stop taking ELIQUIS without talking to the doctor who prescribed (开处方) it to you.‎ Talk to your healthcare team before any medical procedures. ELIQUIS may need to be stopped before surgery, or a medical or dental procedure. Your doctor will tell you when you should stop taking ELIQUIS and when you may start taking it again. If you have to stop taking ELIQUIS, your doctor may prescribe another medicine to help prevent a blood clot from forming.‎ What is the possible serious side effect of ELIQUIS?‎ ELIQUIS can cause bleeding, which can be serious, and rarely may lead to death. This is because ELIQUIS is a blood thinner medicine that reduces blood clotting. While taking ELIQUIS, you may hurt more easily and it may take longer than usual for any bleeding to stop.‎ Call your doctor or get medical help right away if you have any symptoms of bleeding when taking ELIQUIS.‎ Who should not take ELIQUIS?‎ ELIQUIS is not for patients who:‎ § have artificial heart valves (瓣膜).‎ § currently have certain types of abnormal bleeding.‎ § have had a serious allergic (过敏的) reaction to ELIQUIS.‎ What should I discuss with my healthcare team before starting ELIQUIS?‎ Talk to your healthcare team about the following:‎ § Liver problems § Any other medical conditions § If you have ever had bleeding problems Tell your doctor if you are pregnant or breastfeeding, or planning to become pregnant or breastfeed. You and your doctor should decide whether you will take ELIQUIS or breastfeed. You should not do both.‎ Tell your healthcare team about all of the medicines you are taking.‎ ‎60. The important facts about ELIQUIS are mainly intended for .‎ ‎ A. drugstores B. patients C. pregnant women D. healthcare teams ‎61. It can be inferred from the facts that a blood clot forms . ‎ ‎ A. when allergic reaction appears B. when bleeding grows abnormal ‎ C. when blood pressure drops D. when blood becomes thicker ‎62. What can be inferred about ELIQUIS from the facts?‎ ‎ A. It can be harmful to babies. B. It can’t be taken with any other medicines.‎ C. It shouldn’t be taken after a surgery. D. It may increase the risk of having dental problems. ‎ ‎（C）‎ The Earth is facing a climate crisis, but it’s also getting greener and leafier. According to new research, the rise is largely due to China and India.‎ A study by National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), based on extensive satellite photographs and published in the journal Nature Sustainability, has revealed that the two countries with the world’s biggest populations are also responsible for the largest increase in greenness.‎ Since 2000, the planet’s green leaf area has increased by 5 percent, or over 2 million square miles. That’s an area equivalent to the sum total of the Amazon rainforests, NASA says. But researchers stressed that the new greenery does not neutralize deforestation and its negative impacts on ecosystems elsewhere.‎ A third of the leaf increase is thanks to China and India, due to the implementation of major tree-planting projects alongside a vast increase in agriculture.‎ Using the data from a NASA sensor, researchers discovered that China is the source of a quarter of the increase in green leaf area, despite possessing only 6.6 percent of the world’s vegetated area (植被区). Forests account for 42 percent of that increase, while croplands make up a further 32 percent. China’s increase in forest area is the result of forest preservation and expansion programs, NASA said, established to fight against the impacts of climate change, air pollution and soil erosion (水土流失). India has contributed a further 6.8 percent rise in green leaf area, with 82 percent from croplands and 4.4 percent from forests. ‎ Rama Nemani, a co-author of the study and a researcher at NASA’s Ames Research Center, said in a statement, “When the greening of the Earth was first observed, we thought it was due to a warmer, wetter climate and fertilization from the added carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, leading to more leaf growth in northern forests, for instance.” “Now, with the data that lets us understand the phenomenon at really small scales, we see that humans are also contributing,” Nemani said. “This will help scientists make better predictions about the behavior of different Earth systems, which will help countries make better decisions about how and when to take action.”‎ Thomas Pugh, a professor at the University of Birmingham’s School of Geography, Earth and ‎ Environmental Sciences, said the NASA report expands scientists’ understanding of the causes behind global greening. But he also cautioned that a direct line cannot be drawn between an increase in global greening and a decrease in negative impacts of climate change. ‎ ‎63. The passage mainly tells us that .‎ ‎ A. China and India have the world’s largest green leaf areas ‎ ‎ B. China and India are the lead role players in global greening ‎ C. our planet is experiencing a climate crisis despite human efforts ‎ D. our planet is getting greener due to the joint efforts of the world ‎64. What can be learned about China and India?‎ ‎ A. The area of croplands in India is larger than that in China.‎ ‎ B. India’s rise in leaf area is largely due to its forestry program.‎ ‎ C. They both show a greater increase in forests than in croplands.‎ ‎ D. China boasts twenty-five percent of the global rise in leaf area.‎ ‎65. According to Rama Nemani, their new findings are .‎ ‎ A. unexpected but significant B. surprising but valueless ‎ ‎ C. predictable but disappointing D. uncontrollable but inspiring ‎66. What can be inferred from the passage?‎ ‎ A. There is an indirect link between global greening and climate change.‎ ‎ B. The new greenery does not have any positive effect on the global climate.‎ ‎ C. The gain in greenness does not make up for the damage from loss of leaf area.‎ ‎ D. The increase in greening reduces the deforestation rate and its impact globally.‎ Section C Directions: Read the following passage. Fill in each blank with a proper sentence given in the box. Each sentence can be used only once. Note that there are two more sentences than you need.‎ A. Some negative experiences on social media can and do affect some children.‎ B. However, some experts question claims that too much screen time is harmful.‎ C. He wanted to see if there was a similar effect among young people in the United States.‎ D. So, it is natural that parents should wonder about all the time children spend looking at a screen.‎ E. The researchers found no increase in risky sex or driving behaviors, use of illegal substances or eating disorders.‎ F. The researchers suggested that for those children, technology use might get in the way of taking part in other important activities.‎ Screen Time: How Much Is Too Much?‎ Many children spend a lot of time watching or playing with electronic media—from televisions to video games, computers and other devices. 67 Perhaps parents now should ease up on their concerns about screen time, at least for older boys and girls.‎ Until last year, the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) suggested that children and teenagers have no more than two hours of screen time a day. It also suggests that parents balance a child’s screen time with other activities.‎ ‎ 68 Christopher Ferguson, who teaches psychology at Stetson University in Florida, notes a lack of evidence supporting reports that too many hours spent playing video games or watching TV is truly harmful. ‎ Ferguson seems interested in one idea: the link between video games and violent or risky behavior. When he saw results from a recent British survey on screen time, he wanted to know more. The British study found a small negative effect—about a one percent increase—in aggression and depression among children who had six or more hours of screen time a day. 69 So, Ferguson and his team examined answers from a survey on risky behaviors. The study involved about 6,000 boys and girls in Florida, whose average age was 16. ‎ Data from this survey found that American children are also fairly resistant to the negative effects of electronic media. Among those who used screens up to six hours a day, the survey found: a 0.5 percent increase in criminal behavior; a 1.7 percent increase in signs of depression; and a 1.2 percent negative effect on school grades. 70 To further argue his point that screen time is not harmful, Ferguson adds that children should become familiar with screen technology. Electronic devices, he says, are a part of our everyday lives.‎ IV. Summary Writing Directions: Read the following passage. Summarize the main idea and the main point(s) of the passage in no more than 60 words. Use your own words as far as possible. ‎ ‎71. Fujian Puppetry (木偶剧) in Need of Urgent Safeguarding As one of the contributions of Chinese performing art to the world’s cultural heritage (遗产), Fujian puppetry has a long history. It has developed a set of characteristic techniques of performance and puppet making, as well as plays and music.‎ No final conclusions have yet been reached on the origins and evolution of Chinese puppetry. Dating from Shang dynasty, pottery figurines (陶俑) used as burial objects have been discovered at the Yin Ruins. In a Western Han tomb at Mawangdui in Changsha, Hunan Province, a number of wooden figurines have been unearthed. These were a great improvement on those from previous dynasties in terms of craftsmanship, variety and modeling. Over time, figurines as burial objects evolved into puppets for entertainment on festive occasions.‎ Chinese puppetry further developed during the Ming and Qing dynasties, with a bunch of schools spreading across the country. Puppet shows from various places had their own characteristics in terms of figure modeling. ‎ In the past few decades, many traditional forms of art have seen a decline in popularity. In particular, Fujian puppetry finds itself in hot water. The number of young people learning puppetry has decreased due to socioeconomic changes to their lifestyles. The long period of training required to master the complicated performing techniques has also been a factor in the fall.‎ In response, concerned communities, groups and bearers laid down the 2008-2020 Strategy for the Training of Coming Generations of Fujian Puppetry Practitioners. The key objectives are to safeguard the promotion of Fujian Puppetry and to increase its sustainability through professional training to cultivate a new generation of puppetry practitioners; creation of teaching materials; construction of training institutes and exhibition halls; regional and international cooperation; and artistic exchange. ‎ In 2012, the strategy was added to the Register of Good Safeguarding Practices by the UNESCO. With great efforts made by practitioners, local people and education institutions, Fujian Puppetry can expect a brighter future.‎ V. Translation Directions: Translate the following sentences into English, using the words given in the brackets.‎ ‎72. 开展研究之前，你必须进行可行性分析。(It)‎ ‎73. 只有经常与最初的目标对照，你才能确保最终获得成功。(Only)‎ ‎74. 听书是否会打消孩子自己去读这本书的积极性还没有定论。(discourage)‎ ‎75. 正当医生们面对缺少稀有血一筹莫展时，一个病人家属主动提出了献血。(idea)‎ VI. Guided Writing Directions: Write an English composition in 120-150 words according to the instructions given below in Chinese.‎ ‎76. 假设你是中华中学的高三学生李敏，前几天收到远在英国的朋友Sandy的邮件，Sandy知道你即将高中毕业，给你写邮件，询问你高中毕业后的打算，想知道你毕业后准备在国内高等学校继续学习呢，还是计划出国深造，或者直接开始工作，甚或还有其他打算。你现给Sandy回复邮件，内容包括：‎ ² 你高中毕业后的具体打算；‎ ² 你这样打算的理由。‎ 注：文中不得提及你的真实姓名或学校。‎ 崇明区2019届第二次高考模拟考试 英 语 ‎ 参考答案及评分标准 I. Listening Comprehension（共25分。第1至10小题，每题1分；第11至20小题，每题1.5分。）‎ ‎1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. A ‎11. B 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. A II. Grammar and Vocabulary（共20分。每小题1分。）‎ ‎21. expected 22. Until/Before 23. was announced 24. biggest 25. which ‎ ‎26. transporting 27. where 28. one 29. approaches/is approaching 30. to ease ‎31. F 32. E 33. H 34. C 35. J 36. B 37. G 38. D 39. K 40. A III. Reading Comprehension（共45分。第41至55小题，每题1分；第56至70小题，每题2分。）‎ ‎41. B 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. D 46. C 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. A ‎ ‎51. B 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. D 56. C 57. B 58. A 59. D 60. B ‎61. D 62. A 63. B 64. D 65. A 66. C 67. D 68. B 69. C 70. E IV. Summary Writing（共10分）‎ Fujian puppetry, a performing art, is a cultural heritage with a long history that may have originated from burial objects. However, it has become less popular these decades because of fewer young learners and the difficulty in mastering its techniques. Luckily, some people and organizations have realized its value and are making joint efforts to save it, including UNESCO. (59 words)‎ 档次 内容 语言 A ‎5‎ ‎5‎ B ‎4‎ ‎4‎ C ‎3‎ ‎3‎ D ‎2‎ ‎2‎ E ‎1‎ ‎1‎ F ‎0‎ ‎0‎ 评分标准：‎ ‎1. 本题总分为10分, 其中内容5分, 语言5分。‎ ‎2. 评分时应注意的主要方面: 内容要点、信息呈现的连贯性和准确性。‎ ‎3. 词数超过60，酌情扣分。‎ 各档次给分要求:‎ 内容部分：‎ A. 能准确、全面地概括文章主旨大意，并涵盖主要信息。‎ B. 能准确概括文章主旨大意，但遗漏个别主要信息。‎ C. 能概括文章主旨大意，但遗漏部分主要信息。‎ D. 未能准确概括文章主旨大意，遗漏较多主要信息或留有过多细节信息。‎ E. 几乎不能概括文章的主旨大意，未涉及文中有意义的相关信息。‎ F. 完全未作答或作答与本题无关。‎ 语言部分：‎ A. 能用自己的语言连贯、正确地表述。‎ B. 能用自己的语言较连贯、正确地表述，但有个别语言错误。‎ C. 基本能用自己的语言连贯、正确地表述，但连贯性较差，且有少量不影响表 意的语言错误。‎ D. 基本能用自己的语言表述，但连贯性较差，且严重语言错误较多。‎ E. 几乎不能用自己的语言连贯、正确地表述。‎ F. 完全未作答或作答与本题无关。‎ V. Translation（共15分）‎ ‎72. It’s a must for you to analyze its feasibility before conducting a research. ‎ ‎73. Only by checking the initial goal frequently, can you make sure that success is achieved finally.‎ ‎74. Whether listening to a book will discourage children from reading it on their own remains an open question. ‎ ‎75. Just when the doctors had no idea what to do with the lack of rare blood, a family member of a patient offered to donate his/her blood. ‎ 翻译评分标准：‎ ‎1、第1-2题，每题3分。第3题4分，第4题5分。‎ ‎2、在每题中，单词拼写、标点符号、大小写错误累计每两处扣1分。‎ ‎3、语法错误每处扣1分。每句同类语法错误不重复扣分。‎ ‎4、译文没有用所给单词，扣1分。‎ VI. Guided Writing（共25分）‎ 档次 内容 语言 组织结构 A ‎9-10‎ ‎9-10‎ ‎5-4‎ B ‎7-8‎ ‎7-8‎ ‎3‎ C ‎5-6‎ ‎5-6‎ ‎2‎ D ‎3-4‎ ‎3-4‎ ‎1‎ E ‎0-2‎ ‎0-2‎ ‎0‎ 评分标准：‎ ‎1. 本题总分为25分，按A, B, C, D, E五个档次给分。‎ ‎2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。其中，内容和语言两部分相加，得15分或以上者，可考虑加4-5分，15分以上下只能考虑加0，1，2，3分。‎ ‎3. 词数少于 70，总分最多不超过10分。‎ ‎4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。  ‎ ‎5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。    ‎ ‎6. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。  ‎ ‎7. 内容要点可用不同方式表达，对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。 ‎ 崇明区2019届第二次高考模拟考试 英语试卷 听力录音文字 Listening Comprehension Section A Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.‎ ‎1. M: Madam, where do you want to go?‎ W: Could you drop me off at the airport?‎ ‎ Q: What is most probably the man’s occupation?‎ ‎2. W: Please register your information here and pay for it. And I’ll make a medical record for you.‎ M: OK. How much do I need to pay for the registration?‎ Q: Where does the conversation most probably take place?‎ ‎3. M: Sixty-eight dollars? The bill can’t be right! I only had a coffee and a salad for dinner.‎ ‎ W: Sorry. Let me have a check.‎ ‎ Q: What will the woman probably do next?‎ ‎4. W: Why didn’t you go to the football final last weekend? You missed a great game.‎ ‎ M: Oh, you know how sensitive I am to loud noise.‎ ‎ Q: Why did the man miss the football game?‎ ‎5. M: How about a movie tonight? That new comedy is on these days.‎ ‎ W: Sounds great. But I’ve got to put the finishing touches on my report.‎ ‎ Q: What does the woman mean?‎ ‎6. W: Excuse me, but do you know when the next train for Philadelphia leaves?‎ ‎ M: Sorry, I don’t know. But there are schedules beside the ticket window.‎ ‎ Q: What can be inferred about the man?‎ ‎7. W: Tom, I hear you are working as a house painter this summer. It’s got to be awfully hot working up there on a ladder in the sun all day.‎ ‎ M: Well...it’s hard work, but I’ve got used to working outdoors and the pay is decent.‎ ‎ Q: What does the man mean?‎ ‎8. M: What sort of grade did you get on your research paper? I know how hard you worked on it.‎ ‎ W: Yeah, I was hoping for something really good. But the professor said I didn’t give enough supporting details.‎ ‎ Q: What can be inferred from the conversation?‎ ‎9. M: I’ve noticed that you spend a lot of time tending to your garden. Do you think you might like to join our gardening club?‎ ‎ W: Oh, thanks for your invitation. But this is how I relax. I’d rather not make it something formal. ‎ ‎ Q: What does the woman mean?‎ ‎10. W: James, I decided to run for class president and I’m wondering if I can rely on your vote?‎ ‎ M: Oh, maybe if you had asked me sooner. But my roommate is running, too, and I’ve already promised him he will have my support.‎ ‎ Q: What does the man mean?‎ Section B Directions: In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of them. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.‎ Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following passage.‎ When a crow, a kind of black bird, puts a cigarette end or a piece of rubbish in a box, a small amount of tasty food is given as a reward. Some crows are already in service and others will begin soon.‎ Crows have long been seen as symbols of evil and are often considered to be bad birds. A French park, however, has trained the birds to work for it.‎ Six crows have been taught to fly around to check the popular historical theme park. In the park, they collect cigarette ends and other rubbish.‎ These birds are considered “particularly intelligent” members of the crow family and are also quick workers. They are able to fill a bucket with rubbish in less than 45 minutes.‎ Other birds in the crow family are also very clever. In the wild, crows use tools. They can also remember faces. When fed by a human, they will give gifts in return.‎ ‎“They like to communicate with humans and establish a relationship through play,” Mr. Villiers, manager of the park, said. “The goal of the project is not just to clear up—because visitors are generally careful to keep things clean—but also to show that nature itself can teach us to take care of the environment.”‎ ‎(Now listen again, please)‎ Questions:‎ ‎11. What does the passage mainly want to tell us?‎ ‎12. What is the crows’ job in the French theme park?‎ ‎13. What is one of the goals of the project?‎ Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following passage.‎ When you’re walking around a city, how often do you look up and admire the view? Many of us are in too much of a rush to appreciate the architecture all around us.‎ Cities are always growing, and when space is limited, they expand upwards—reaching for the sky. The skylines of many modern cities are full of skyscrapers: landmarks that can be seen for miles around. These landmarks are often must-see sights for tourists. ‎ New York has its Empire State Building and the gorgeous skyscrapers of Manhattan. Dubai has the world’s tallest tower, which stands at 828 meters; and Shanghai has the world’s second tallest tower with the completion of the Shanghai Tower. ‎ London hasn’t always been associated with the race for upward expansion, but since the opening of Canary Wharf tower in the city’s Docklands area, the development of high-rise buildings has been unstoppable. Now London boasts new skyscrapers with odd nicknames that reflect the shapes of the buildings. Standing tall among them is the Shard—and at 309 meters it’s Europe’s tallest building. But they are not loved by everyone. While some prefer them to uninspiring rows of office blocks, others ‎ say they block the view of old-fashioned landmarks and that they threaten London’s cultural identity. Some say they’re just ugly! A group of Londoners are now campaigning to stop certain high-rise developments. ‎ ‎ (Now listen again, please)‎ Questions:‎ ‎14. Why are cities expanding upwards?‎ ‎15. Which of the following is a reason some people give for disliking the high-rises in London?‎ ‎16. What can be learned from the passage?‎ Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation.‎ W: Hi, Rob. Do you mind if I eat lunch with you?‎ M: No, Mrs. Evans, not at all.‎ W: Thanks. I’ve just heard you study nutrition and you’ve got quite a lot of experience working in the cafeteria. So, I wonder if you are interested in a small project we are doing this term.‎ M: What is the project about?‎ W: More and more students prefer not to buy meals here and we want to attract them back. I want to know what the students would like to eat. Your job will be finding this out. Of course I’d also like to hear any of your ideas.‎ M: Well, if the menus were changed, maybe I wouldn’t have to listen to so much criticism this term. You know everyone in the nutrition class sees me when I serve food here. So they always complain to me about the food here.‎ W: That makes you perfect for the project. Would you be interested?‎ M: I’m not sure. What sort of changes are you thinking of?‎ W: We’d like to make some changes in the way we prepare the food and we want to give students more choices. Do you think that will appeal to the students?‎ M: Well, you’re right. You’d better find out what they think. Oh, sorry, I’ve got to go back to work now. I’ll drop in at your office later.‎ W: Ok, see you then.‎ ‎(Now listen again, please)‎ Questions:‎ ‎17. What are the two speakers mainly discussing?‎ ‎18. What is the man’s current job in the cafeteria?‎ ‎19. What does the woman want the man to do?‎ ‎20. How does the man feel about the woman’s project?‎ That’s the end of the listening comprehension.‎