北京市丰台区2020届高三6月模拟考试英语试题

北京市丰台区2020届高三6月模拟考试英语试题

‎ 丰台区2020年高三年级第二学期综合练习（二）‎ 英 语 ‎ 2020. 06‎ 本试卷满分共120分 考试时间100分钟 ‎ 注意事项：‎ 1. 答题前，考生务必先将答题卡上的学校、年级、班级、姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹签字笔填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的准考证号、姓名，在答题卡的“条形码粘贴区”贴好条形码。‎ 2. 本次考试所有答题均在答题卡上完成。选择题必须使用2B铅笔以正确填涂方式将各小题对应选项涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦除干净后再选涂其它选项。非选择题必须使用标准黑色字迹签字笔书写，要求字体工整、字迹清楚。‎ 3. 请严格按照答题卡上题号在相应答题区内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试卷、草稿纸上答题无效。‎ 4. 请保持答题卡卡面清洁，不要装订、不要折叠、不要破损。‎ 第一部分：知识运用（共两节，45分）‎ 第一节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）‎ 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容填空。在未给提示词的空白处仅填写 1个适当的单词，在给出提示词的空白处用括号内所给词的正确形式填空。‎ A Esias Bedingar always knew he wanted to study medicine. After 1 ‎ ‎(decide) to experience a new culture, he came from Africa to the USA. There was one challenge: He 2 (speak) no English. But within just four months, he completed the ESL program. Three years later, he finished his undergraduate degree and was accepted to Harvard University, where he is pursuing a master’s degree in public health. He said it was 3 (he) dream that got him to Harvard.‎ B Confucius (孔子), born in the district of Zou, near today’s Qufu city in Shandong province, was an educator and philosopher (哲学家) 4 ‎ founded Confucianism, a school of thought that deeply influenced later generations. He was the first Chinese to set up private schools and enroll students from all walks of life. Confucius 5 (regard) as a symbol of China’s traditional culture. Nowadays, Qufu holds memorial events every year 6 ‎ ‎ (honor) him and popularize his theory to the younger generations. ‎ C Everything happens for a reason. Nothing happens by chance or by means of good luck. Injury, 7 (ill), love, and lost moments of true greatness all occur to test the limits of your soul. 8 these small tests, life would be like a straight flat road to nowhere. It would be safe and comfortable, 9 dull and completely pointless. The success and downfall you experience helps to create who you are and decide 10 you go. ‎ 第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 ‎ I was a boy of nine in 1960. I used to mow the lawn for Mrs. Long. She paid me little for the job, but 11 to give me a Christmas present. ‎ I spent much time 12 what it would be. Many boys had baseball gloves or ice skates and I was 13 to have any of these. “It would 14 be a baseball glove,” I 15 with myself. “She wouldn’t know much about baseball.” So I was 16 that she would give me ice skates. I even 17 ‎ myself upon the skates. ‎ As Christmas approached, it was with 18 that I stopped myself from reporting to Mrs. Long and demanding my present. On December 22, I 19 ‎ myself at the door of the house. Mrs. Long sat me in a chair and handed me a small box which under no circumstances could ‎20 a pair of skates. I was ‎ ‎21 . When lifting it from her, I was curious about the 22 of the present. It weighed almost nothing. ‎ ‎“What is it?” I asked.‎ ‎“A kind of magic,” she said. Her words were enough to set my mind dancing with new 23 . There were other presents of normal dimension and weight. But Mrs. Long’s box dominated all, for it had to do with 24 .‎ On Christmas morning, before the sun was up, I had this box on my knees. With great 25 I opened the box to find inside ten sheets of black paper, each labeled in colorful letters, Carbon Paper Regal Premium. “What is it?” I asked. Mum took two pieces of white paper, placed between them one of the black paper, and wrote my name on the upper sheet. Then she handed me the second sheet, which her pencil had in no way touched. There was my name! ‎ It was a miracle to my 26 mind. In that one moment, I 27 the ideas about the duplication (复制) of words and the printing and the mystery of spreading ideas. Thank Mrs. Long for her 28 to guess that a boy might profit from a present totally outside the realm (领域) of his 29 experience. ‎ The average present 30 satisfies a temporary desire; the great one lights up all the years of life that remain. ‎ ‎11. A. allowed B. promised C. attempted D. reminded ‎ ‎12. A. asking B. recalling C. proving D. wondering ‎13. A. eager B. generous C. amused D. determined ‎14. A. possibly B. usually C. hardly D. definitely ‎ ‎15. A. reasoned B. inquired C. checked D. complained ‎16. A. shocked B. convinced C. delighted D. satisfied ‎ ‎17. A. prepared B. expected C. taught D. imagined ‎18. A. anxiety B. patience C. difficulty D. confirmation ‎19. A. presented B. forced C. urged D. employed ‎20. A. cover B. hold C. include D. involve ‎21. A. angry B. regretful C. awkward D. disappointed ‎22. A. value B. shape C. lightness D. meaning ‎ ‎23. A. features B. proposals C. experiences D. possibilities ‎24. A. magic B. interest C. love D. belief ‎25. A. surprise B. energy C. excitement D. confidence ‎26. A. sharp B. childish C. brilliant D. creative ‎27. A. spread B. understood C. remembered D. practiced ‎28. A. wisdom B. kindness C. privilege D. encouragement ‎ ‎29. A. rich B. precious C. ordinary D. unforgettable ‎ ‎30. A. even B. still C. once D. merely 第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，40分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ A ‎ As an excellent international organization to deliver both camping and an academic opportunity, Eagles Landing International (ELI) offers school-aged students the opportunity to experience targeted ‎ academic programs, global leadership development,and exposure to an authentic camping experience. ‎ ELI ACADEMIC STREAMS At ELI, we create global leaders by integrating camping with personalized academic activities designed around our two learning streams.‎ English Language Immersion—We believe that the best way to learn alanguage is to live that language. Personalized activities prepare campers to be as successful as possible in achieving their language goals. Daily interactions withour American campers give campers the opportunity to apply newly acquired language skills.‎ Global Leadership—For those who have a more advanced English language level, we design activities that teach the skills based on cultural intelligence, ‎ communication strategies, as well as critical thinking that are necessary in today’s modern, global society.‎ ELI CAMP LIFE With a focus on the development of social-emotional and physical well-being, ELI campers will grow as global community members and leaders.‎ Accommodation Our International Village provides the ultimate security and peace of mind in an environment beneficial to learning and social interaction. Male and female campers will be housed on separate floors with on-duty supervision (监督) 24 hours a day. ‎ Meal plan Student-campers will be provided with breakfast, lunch, and dinner as well as a morning fruit break. Special dietary needs can usually be accommodated with advanced notice.‎ To truly appreciate the way it inspires our student-campers to learn, perform, and compete at the highest levels every day, join us in South Florida for an unforgettable experience.‎ ELI Typical Weekly Schedule Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday &‎ Saturday Sunday ‎9:15-9:55‎ Academics Academics Academics Academics Short trips: Beach, Disney, Universal, Water Park, etc.‎ Clean-up ‎9:55-10:10‎ Fruit Break Fruit Break Fruit Break Fruit Break ‎10:10-10:50‎ Academics Academics Academics Academics Brunch ‎ ‎10:55-11:30‎ Basketball Water Slide Yoga Track Swim ‎11:35-12:35‎ Swim Swim Swim Swim ‎13:35-14:15‎ Music ‎ Science & ‎ Nature Music Science & ‎ Nature House-‎ keeping ‎14:20-14:35‎ Ice Cream Ice Cream Ice Cream Ice Cream ‎14:40-16:00‎ Rest Hour Rest Hour Rest Hour Rest Hour Weights, Gym, Field ‎16:00-16:40‎ Academics Academics Academics Academics ‎19:30-20:30‎ Evening Program Evening Program Evening Program Evening Program Evening Program ‎31. What does ELI offer its campers?‎ A. Overseas trips.‎ B. A flexible schedule.‎ C. Safe accommodation.‎ D. Meals from different countries.‎ ‎32. What makes ELI different from other camps?‎ ‎ A. It provides programs by age group. ‎ ‎ B. It focuses on developing social skills.‎ ‎ C. It creates a new way of learning languages. ‎ ‎ D. It combines camping with academic programs.‎ ‎33. According to ELI Typical Weekly Schedule, campers _______. ‎ A. are free in the evening B. can enjoy a variety of sports ‎ C. are quite busy with academics D. are expected to plan their weekends B Something strange was happening inside LeeAnne’s home. During the summer of 2014, 14-year-old J.D. had stomach severe pains, but his CT scan found nothing wrong. LeeAnne and her husband lost hair and suffered dizziness and headaches. LeeAnne even lost her eyelashes. ‎ In January 2015, the city of Flint sent out a notice that the water supply, switched from the Detroit water system to the Flint River to cut cost, contained high levels of trihalomethanes (三卤甲烷). The notice warned that people with poor immune (免疫的) systems might be at increased risk for liver, kidney, and nervous system problems but emphasized that the water was otherwise safe to drink.‎ Alarmed, LeeAnne researched the water supply and searched the Internet. Then she distributed a fact sheet to city officials, listing the side effects of exposure to trihalomethanes. Then she urged her neighbors to attend city council meetings, where they shared their health problems. Still, officials insisted the ‎ water was safe to drink. So LeeAnne demanded that the city test her water. ‎ The results were disturbing. The trihalomethanes were the least of her problems. The lead levels in her water were nearly seven times the legal amount. But the city maintained her plumbing (管道) was the cause.‎ LeeAnne immediately had her children tested for lead. All the kids showed lead exposure. She read Flint’s water quality reports and discovered the city wasn’t applying the proper corrosion (腐蚀) control standards to its pipes; the standards prevent the metal in pipes from leaching into the water. ‎ In March, a follow-up test of LeeAnne’s water showed lead levels nearly 27 times higher than the EPA’s threshold. LeeAnne’s pipes could not be responsible for the high lead levels, since they were plastic. ‎ In September, Virginia Tech lab released a report that concluded the Flint River water was 19 times more corrosive than the Detroit water. ‎ The governor eventually admitted the water was unsafe. He ordered that Flint’s water supply be switched back to Detroit’s. In Washington, President Barack Obama declared a state of emergency in Flint and ordered federal aid to help the city recover. ‎ ‎34. How did LeeAnne react to the city notice?‎ ‎ A. She had her children tested for lead.‎ B. She asked the city to replace her pipes.‎ C. She urged the officials to test Flint’s water. ‎ D. She collected side effects of trihalomethanes.‎ ‎35. What is the leading cause of the family’s health problem?‎ A. The lead in their water.‎ B. Corrosion to their pipes.‎ C. Their poor immune systems.‎ D. Exposure to Trihalomethanes.‎ ‎36. City officials’ attitude toward the water issue was _______.‎ A. unconcerned B. cautious C. doubtful D. objective ‎37. What does the story mainly tell us?‎ ‎ A. Revealing the truth takes time.‎ ‎ B. Nothing can stop a determined heart.‎ ‎ C. It takes courage to challenge authority.‎ ‎ D. Joint effort is the key to solving problems.‎ C Turtles have an unfortunate habit of eating plastic objects floating in the sea. These cannot be digested and may ultimately kill them. It is widely assumed that this fondness for plastics is a matter of mistaken identity. Drifting plastic bags, for instance, look similar to jellyfish (水母), which many types of turtles love to eat. Yet lots of plastic objects that end up inside turtles have no similarity to jellyfish. Joseph Pfaller of the University of Florida therefore suspects that the smell of marine microorganisms (海洋微生物) which grow on floating plastic objects fools turtles into feeding. ‎ The idea that the smell of floating plastic objects might lure animals to their death first emerged in 2016. Researchers at the University of California noticed that certain chemicals, notably dimethyl sulphide (二甲基硫), which are released into the air by floating plastics, are those which many seabirds sniff (嗅) to track down food. These chemicals mark good places to hunt because they indicate plenty of the algae (海藻) and bacteria (细菌). The researchers also found that birds which pursue their food in this way are five or six times more likely to eat plastic than those which do not. ‎ Since turtles are known to break the surface periodically and sniff the air when finding the way to their feeding areas, Dr Pfaller theorised that they are following these same chemicals, and are likewise fooled into thinking that floating plastic objects are eatable. ‎ To test that idea, he and his colleagues set up an experiment. They arranged for 15 turtles to be exposed to four smells: the vapour from deionised water; the smell of turtle-feeding balls made of shrimp and fish meal; the smell of a clean plastic bottle chopped up into ten pieces; and the smell of a similarly chopped ‎ bottle that had been kept in the ocean for five weeks to allow algae and bacteria to grow on it. ‎ Two of the smells proved far more attractive to the animals than the others. When sniffing both the smell of food balls and that of five-week-old bottles, turtles kept their nostrils out of the water more than three times as long, and took twice as many breaths as they did when what was on offer was the smell of fresh bottle-plastic or deionised-water vapour. ‎ Though they have not yet tested whether dimethyl sulphide is the culprit, Dr Pfaller and his colleagues think it is the most likely candidate. In an unpolluted ocean, pretty well anything which had this smell would be eatable—or, at least, harmless. Unfortunately, five-week-old plastic bottles and their like are not. ‎ ‎38. Paragraph 1 mainly tells us that turtles _______.‎ A. mistake plastic objects for jellyfish ‎ B. are fooled into eating plastics by a smell ‎ C. are dying out as a result of plastic pollution ‎ D. break down plastics without much difficulty ‎39. What can we infer from the research on seabirds?‎ A. Seabirds eat plastics for the taste. ‎ B. The algae and bacteria grow well on plastics.‎ C. Researchers got the idea from the study of turtles.‎ D. Some seabirds pursue food in a similar way to turtles.‎ ‎40. Dr Pfaller’s research shows _______.‎ A. turtles prefer the smell of plastics ‎ B. turtles live on marine microorganisms C. dimethyl sulphide may be to blame for turtles’ death D. plastics release the same chemicals as microorganisms ‎41. What is the purpose of the passage?‎ A. To propose a new way to study turtles. ‎ B. To stress the importance of improving ecosystem.‎ C. To introduce the findings on the cause of turtles’ death. ‎ D. To explain the effects of plastic pollution on sea animals.‎ D ‎ Scientists often complain that people are not rational (理性的) in their opposition to technologies such as nuclear power and genetically modified (GM) crops. From a statistical perspective, these are very safe, and so people’s fear can be explained only by emotion, strengthened by ignorance. Electricity from nuclear power has led to far fewer direct deaths than has coalfired power, yet many people are afraid of it, and hardly anyone is afraid of coal plants. Similar arguments can be made about GM crops, which studies have shown are generally safe for most people to eat. ‎ Scientific illiteracy (无知) may be part of the problem. Most of us are afraid of things we don’t understand, and studies have shown that scientists tend to be more accepting of potentially risky technologies than laypeople. This suggests that when people know a lot about such technologies, they are usually reassured. ‎ But there’s more to the issue than meets the eye. It is true that many of us fear the unknown, but it is also true that we don’t care enough about routine risks. Part of the explanation is complacency: we tend not to fear the familiar, and thus familiarity can lead us to underestimate risk. The investigation into the Deepwater Horizon blowout and oil spill (原油泄漏) in 2010 showed that complacency ‎—among executives, among engineers and among government officials—was a major cause of that disaster. So the fact that experts are unworried about a threat is not necessarily reassuring. ‎ Scientists also make a mistake when they assume that public concerns are wholly or even mostly about safety. Some people object to GM crops because these crops facilitate the increased use of chemicals. Others have a problem with the social impacts that switching to GM organisms can have on traditional farming communities or with the political implications of leaving a large share of the food supply in the hands of a few corporations. ‎ Geoengineering (地球工程学) to lessen the impacts of climate change is another example. Laypeople as well as scientists are more concerned about oversight (监管) than safety. Who will decide whether this is a good way to deal with climate change? If we undertake the project of setting the global temperature ‎ by controlling how much sunlight reaches Earth’s surface, who will be included in that “we” and by what process will the “right” global temperature be chosen? ‎ Can we say which group’s view is closer to an accurate assessment? ‎ ‎42. The underlined word “complacency” in Paragraph 3 probably means ______.‎ A. overconfidence B. prediction ‎ C. underestimation D. carelessness ‎43. The example of geoengineering is used to argue that _______.‎ A. safety is not the whole concern of the public B. geoengineering is highly recognized by scientists C. the public are unnecessarily troubled by climate change D. lessening the impacts of climate change is a great challenge ‎44. What can we learn from the passage?‎ A. Scientific illiteracy is a major cause of disasters. ‎ B. The safety of technologies can be accurately assessed. ‎ C. Scientists misjudge people’s opposition to technologies.‎ D. People are unworried about risks with proper oversight.‎ ‎45. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?‎ A. Ignorance or Safety B. Who Is Rational About Risk C. Why Can’t People Trust Technology D. Should Scientists Have a Say in Risk 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ One major reason Americans don’t get enough exercise is that they feel they don’t have enough time. It can be difficult to squeeze in the 75 minutes of aerobic (有氧的) exercise per week that federal guidelines recommend. 46 ‎ In a new analysis of 14 studies, researchers tracked deaths among more than ‎ ‎232,000 people from the U.S., Denmark, the U.K. and China over at least five ‎ years, and compared the findings with people’s self-reports about how much they ‎ ran. People who said they ran any amount were less likely to die than those who ‎ didn’t run at all. 47 This was true even for those who didn’t log a great ‎ deal of time. The analysis divided people into groups, with 50 minutes or less per ‎ week representing the group that ran the least—but still ran. “Regardless of how ‎ much you run, you can expect such benefits,” says Zeljko Pedisic, one of the ‎ authors of the new analysis published in the British Journal of Sports Medicine.‎ The analysis is the latest to illustrate the benefits of running on the human body. It’s what we evolved (进化) to do. 48 But as leisure-time exercise, running keeps us healthy. “One of the best ways to avoid having to see a doctor,” Zeljko says, “is to stay physically active.” ‎ ‎ 49 Running is good at guarding against cancer partly because it uses up blood sugar, starving the cancer cells that rely on it for fuel. And it protects you in other ways not necessarily measured in the latest research: by decreasing inflammation (炎症), for example, which is at the root of many diseases, and stimulating the production of a protein that improves brain health. ‎ ‎ 50 Neither were how often people ran and the pace they kept. As long as you’re running, more isn’t always better, especially given that the risk of injury increases with repetition. ‎ A. People may no longer hunt wild animals for their next meal. ‎ B. The physical demands of running affect our body in a beneficial way.‎ C. Some people run to prevent disease, and others run because it makes them feel better. ‎ D. Runners were 27% less likely to die for any reason, compared with nonrunners.‎ E. But researchers point out, to infer something like that, they need the whole population measured. ‎ F. But new research suggests people may be able to get life-lengthening benefits by running for far less time.‎ G. The good news is that running more than 50 minutes per week wasn’t linked to additional protections against dying.‎ 第三部分：书面表达（共两节，35分）‎ 第一节（15分）‎ 假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。你的英国好友Jim即将来京，并打算利用周末时间游览一处北京古代建筑。他发来邮件询问相关信息。请你给他回复邮件，内容包括：‎ ‎1．你的推荐；‎ ‎2．说明理由。‎ 注意：1. 词数不少于50； ‎ ‎2. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。‎ Dear Jim, ‎ ‎_________________________________________________________________‎ ‎__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ Yours, ‎ Li Hua ‎（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）‎ 第二节（20分）‎ 假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。为提高学生的生活技能，你们班上周组织了一次“厨艺秀”。请根据以下四幅图的先后顺序，写一篇英文周记，记述整个过程。　‎ 注意： 词数不少于60。‎ ‎ ‎ ‎（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）‎ 丰台区2020年高三年级第二学期综合练习（二）‎ 英 语 答案及评分参考 ‎ ‎ 2020. 06‎ 第一部分：知识运用（共两节，45分）‎ 第一节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）‎ ‎1. deciding 2. spoke 3. his 4. who/that ‎ ‎5. is regarded/ has been regarded 6. to honor 7. illness ‎ ‎8. Without 9. but/ yet 10. where ‎ 第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分）‎ ‎11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. B ‎ ‎21. D 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. D ‎ 第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，40分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）‎ ‎31. C 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. A 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. D 40. C ‎41. C 42. A 43. A 44. C 45. B 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）‎ ‎46. F 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. G 第三部分：书面表达（共两节，35分）‎ 第一节（15分）‎ 一、评分原则 ‎1．本题总分为15分，按4个档次给分。‎ ‎2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎3．评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，逻辑是否清晰，交际是否得体，语言是否规范。‎ ‎4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。‎ ‎5．词数少于50，从总分中减去1分。‎ 二、各档次给分范围和要求 第一档 ‎（13分～15分）‎ 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 内容完整，条理清楚；‎ Ÿ 交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。‎ 完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第二档 ‎（9分～12分）‎ 基本完成了试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；‎ Ÿ 所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；‎ Ÿ 语法或用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。‎ 基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第三档 ‎（4分～8分）‎ 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 内容不完整；‎ Ÿ 所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。‎ 未能清楚地传达信息。‎ 第四档 ‎（1分～3分）‎ 未完成试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 写了少量相关信息；‎ Ÿ 语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。‎ ‎0分 未传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。‎ 三、范文 One possible version：‎ Dear Jim,‎ ‎ I’ve been thinking about which ancient architecture best suits your interest since I received your email. There are a wide range of choices but one of the most representatives must be the Palace Museum. ‎ The Palace Museum once served as the home of the Emperor and his household, as well as the political centre of Chinese government for almost five centuries. It’s a typical example of the ancient Chinese palace architecture with more than 9,000 rooms. It’s also one of the largest and best preserved wooden structures in the world. By visiting it, you will be impressed by the wisdom of the ancient Chinese in architecture, and learn more about the history of Ming and Qing dynasties as well.‎ If you need any more information, just let me know.‎ Yours, ‎ Li Hua ‎ 第二节（20分）‎ 一、评分原则 ‎1．本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。‎ ‎2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来 衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎3．评分时应考虑：内容要点的完整性、上下文的连贯性、词汇和句式的多样性及语言的准确性。‎ ‎4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。‎ ‎5．词数少于60，从总分中减去1分。‎ 二、内容要点 ‎1．布置任务 ‎2．学习厨艺 ‎3．呈现美食 ‎4．班级分享 三、各档次给分范围和要求 第一档 ‎(18分～20分)‎ 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 覆盖了所有内容要点；‎ Ÿ 运用了多样的句式和丰富的词汇；‎ Ÿ 语法或用词方面有个别错误，但为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致；体现了较强的语言运用能力；‎ Ÿ 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，所写内容连贯、结构紧凑。‎ 完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第二档 ‎(15分～17分)‎ 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 覆盖了所有内容要点；‎ Ÿ 运用的句式和词汇能满足任务要求；‎ Ÿ 语法和用词基本准确，少许错误主要为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致；‎ Ÿ 使用了简单的语句间连接成分，所写内容连贯。‎ 达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第三档 ‎(12分～14分)‎ 基本完成了试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 覆盖了内容要点；‎ Ÿ 运用的句式和词汇基本满足任务要求；‎ Ÿ 语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。‎ 基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第四档 ‎(6分～11分)‎ 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 漏掉或未描述清楚内容要点；‎ Ÿ 所用句式和词汇有限；‎ Ÿ 语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。‎ 未能清楚地传达信息。‎ 第五档 ‎(1分～5分)‎ 未完成试题规定的任务。‎ Ÿ 明显遗漏内容要点；‎ Ÿ 句式单调、词汇贫乏；‎ Ÿ 语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。‎ ‎0分 未能传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。‎ 四、范文 One possible version：‎ Last week, our class organized an activity themed “Cooking Show” to improve our living skills.‎ Informed that we should learn to cook a dish and share our learning experience with classmates, we were excited and racked our brains for the proper choice. ‎ Hardly had I got home that evening when I turned to my mom for help. She suggested making a steamed fish since it was our family’s favorite and easy to cook. Under my mom’s guidance, I prepared all the ingredients and then put the fish in the steamer. Meanwhile, my father recorded the whole process.‎ Soon, the room was filled with the pleasant smell of the fish and it was ready to eat. The moment I laid the fish on the dining table, my mom praised me for its wonderful color and smell. Seeing my parents enjoyed it, I felt overjoyed and proud.‎ The next day, I shared my cooking experience at the class meeting. I introduced my learning process as well as the happiness gained from cooking for ‎ families, which found an echo in the hearts of all my classmates.‎